Page 1
A
Test Booklet No. Test Booklet Code
>
(Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so)
Time Allowed : 60 minutes Maximum Marks : 200 Total Questions : 50 Number of questions to be answered : 40
Kindly read the Instructions given on this Page and Back Page carefully before attempting this Question Paper.
Important Instructions for the Candidates :
1. This Test Booklet contains 50 questions printed in English. Out of these, the candidate is required to answer any
40 questions. If a candidate answers more than 40 questions, the first 40 answered questions will be considered for
evaluation.
2. When you are given the OMR Answer Sheet, fill in your particulars on it carefully with blue/black ball point pen only.
3. Use only Blue/Black Ball Point Pen for marking responses.
4. The CODE for this Test Booklet is A. Make sure that the CODE printed on the OMR Answer Sheet is the same as that
on this Test Booklet. Also ensure that your Test Booklet No. and OMR Answer Sheet No. are exactly the same. In case
of discrepancy, the candidate should immediately report the matter to the Invigilator for replacement of both the Test
Booklet and the OMR Answer Sheet. No claim in this regard will be entertained after five minutes from the start of the
examination.
5. Before attempting the question paper kindly check that this Test Booklet has total 16 pages and OMR Answer Sheet
consists of one sheet. At the start of the examination within first five minutes, candidates are advised to ensure that all
pages of Test Booklet and OMR Answer Sheet are properly printed and they are not damaged in any manner.
6. Each question has four answer options. Out of these four options choose the MOST APPROPRIATE OPTION and
darken/blacken the corresponding circle on the OMR Answer Sheet with a Blue/Black Ball Point Pen.
7. Five (5) marks will be given for each correct answer. One (1) mark will be deducted for each incorrect answer. If more
than one circle is found darkened/blackened for a question, then it will be considered as an incorrect answer.
Unanswered questions will be given no mark.
P.T.O.
Name of the Candidate (in Capital Letters) : ___________________________________________________________________
Application Number (in figures) : ______________________________________________________________________________
Roll Number (in figures) : ___________________________________________________________________________________
Centre of Examination (in Capital Letters) : ___________________________________________________________________
Candidate’s Signature : ____________________________ Invigilator’s Signature : ___________________________________
Facsimile signature stamp of Centre Superintendent : __________________________________________________________
Subject : CHEMISTRY
Code : 306 E
Medium : English
Page 2
A
Test Booklet No. Test Booklet Code
>
(Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so)
Time Allowed : 60 minutes Maximum Marks : 200 Total Questions : 50 Number of questions to be answered : 40
Kindly read the Instructions given on this Page and Back Page carefully before attempting this Question Paper.
Important Instructions for the Candidates :
1. This Test Booklet contains 50 questions printed in English. Out of these, the candidate is required to answer any
40 questions. If a candidate answers more than 40 questions, the first 40 answered questions will be considered for
evaluation.
2. When you are given the OMR Answer Sheet, fill in your particulars on it carefully with blue/black ball point pen only.
3. Use only Blue/Black Ball Point Pen for marking responses.
4. The CODE for this Test Booklet is A. Make sure that the CODE printed on the OMR Answer Sheet is the same as that
on this Test Booklet. Also ensure that your Test Booklet No. and OMR Answer Sheet No. are exactly the same. In case
of discrepancy, the candidate should immediately report the matter to the Invigilator for replacement of both the Test
Booklet and the OMR Answer Sheet. No claim in this regard will be entertained after five minutes from the start of the
examination.
5. Before attempting the question paper kindly check that this Test Booklet has total 16 pages and OMR Answer Sheet
consists of one sheet. At the start of the examination within first five minutes, candidates are advised to ensure that all
pages of Test Booklet and OMR Answer Sheet are properly printed and they are not damaged in any manner.
6. Each question has four answer options. Out of these four options choose the MOST APPROPRIATE OPTION and
darken/blacken the corresponding circle on the OMR Answer Sheet with a Blue/Black Ball Point Pen.
7. Five (5) marks will be given for each correct answer. One (1) mark will be deducted for each incorrect answer. If more
than one circle is found darkened/blackened for a question, then it will be considered as an incorrect answer.
Unanswered questions will be given no mark.
P.T.O.
Name of the Candidate (in Capital Letters) : ___________________________________________________________________
Application Number (in figures) : ______________________________________________________________________________
Roll Number (in figures) : ___________________________________________________________________________________
Centre of Examination (in Capital Letters) : ___________________________________________________________________
Candidate’s Signature : ____________________________ Invigilator’s Signature : ___________________________________
Facsimile signature stamp of Centre Superintendent : __________________________________________________________
Subject : CHEMISTRY
Code : 306 E
Medium : English
306 E/A ( 2 )
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
1. The total number of ions produced from the complex [Cr(NH
3
)
6
]Cl
3
in aqueous solution will be ________.
(1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 4 (4) 5
2. Arrange the following in decreasing order of number of molecules contained in :
(A) 16 g of O
2
(B) 16 g of CO
2
(C) 16 g of CO
(D) 16 g of H
2
Choose the correct order from the options given below :
(1) (A), (B), (C), (D)
(2) (D), (C), (A), (B)
(3) (B), (A), (D), (C)
(4) (C), (B), (D), (A)
3. A molecule X associates in a given solvent as per the following equation :
X ? (X)
n
For a given concentration of X, the van't Hoff factor was found to be 0.80 and the fraction of associated
molecules was 0.3. The correct value of ‘n’ is :
(1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 1 (4) 5
4. The oxidation number of Co in complex [Co(H
2
NCH
2
CH
2
NH
2
)
3
]
2
(SO
4
)
3
is
(1) 3 (2) 4
(3) 2 (4) 5
5. The correct structure of dipeptide, Gly-Ala (glycyl alanine) is
(1) H
2
N – CH
2
– CO – NH – CH(CH
3
) – COOH
(2) HOOC – CH
2
– NH – CO – CH(CH
3
) – NH
2
(3) HOOC – CH(CH
3
) – NH – CO – CH
2
– NH
2
(4) H
2
N – CH(CH
3
) – CO – NH – CH
2
– COOH
Page 3
A
Test Booklet No. Test Booklet Code
>
(Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so)
Time Allowed : 60 minutes Maximum Marks : 200 Total Questions : 50 Number of questions to be answered : 40
Kindly read the Instructions given on this Page and Back Page carefully before attempting this Question Paper.
Important Instructions for the Candidates :
1. This Test Booklet contains 50 questions printed in English. Out of these, the candidate is required to answer any
40 questions. If a candidate answers more than 40 questions, the first 40 answered questions will be considered for
evaluation.
2. When you are given the OMR Answer Sheet, fill in your particulars on it carefully with blue/black ball point pen only.
3. Use only Blue/Black Ball Point Pen for marking responses.
4. The CODE for this Test Booklet is A. Make sure that the CODE printed on the OMR Answer Sheet is the same as that
on this Test Booklet. Also ensure that your Test Booklet No. and OMR Answer Sheet No. are exactly the same. In case
of discrepancy, the candidate should immediately report the matter to the Invigilator for replacement of both the Test
Booklet and the OMR Answer Sheet. No claim in this regard will be entertained after five minutes from the start of the
examination.
5. Before attempting the question paper kindly check that this Test Booklet has total 16 pages and OMR Answer Sheet
consists of one sheet. At the start of the examination within first five minutes, candidates are advised to ensure that all
pages of Test Booklet and OMR Answer Sheet are properly printed and they are not damaged in any manner.
6. Each question has four answer options. Out of these four options choose the MOST APPROPRIATE OPTION and
darken/blacken the corresponding circle on the OMR Answer Sheet with a Blue/Black Ball Point Pen.
7. Five (5) marks will be given for each correct answer. One (1) mark will be deducted for each incorrect answer. If more
than one circle is found darkened/blackened for a question, then it will be considered as an incorrect answer.
Unanswered questions will be given no mark.
P.T.O.
Name of the Candidate (in Capital Letters) : ___________________________________________________________________
Application Number (in figures) : ______________________________________________________________________________
Roll Number (in figures) : ___________________________________________________________________________________
Centre of Examination (in Capital Letters) : ___________________________________________________________________
Candidate’s Signature : ____________________________ Invigilator’s Signature : ___________________________________
Facsimile signature stamp of Centre Superintendent : __________________________________________________________
Subject : CHEMISTRY
Code : 306 E
Medium : English
306 E/A ( 2 )
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
1. The total number of ions produced from the complex [Cr(NH
3
)
6
]Cl
3
in aqueous solution will be ________.
(1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 4 (4) 5
2. Arrange the following in decreasing order of number of molecules contained in :
(A) 16 g of O
2
(B) 16 g of CO
2
(C) 16 g of CO
(D) 16 g of H
2
Choose the correct order from the options given below :
(1) (A), (B), (C), (D)
(2) (D), (C), (A), (B)
(3) (B), (A), (D), (C)
(4) (C), (B), (D), (A)
3. A molecule X associates in a given solvent as per the following equation :
X ? (X)
n
For a given concentration of X, the van't Hoff factor was found to be 0.80 and the fraction of associated
molecules was 0.3. The correct value of ‘n’ is :
(1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 1 (4) 5
4. The oxidation number of Co in complex [Co(H
2
NCH
2
CH
2
NH
2
)
3
]
2
(SO
4
)
3
is
(1) 3 (2) 4
(3) 2 (4) 5
5. The correct structure of dipeptide, Gly-Ala (glycyl alanine) is
(1) H
2
N – CH
2
– CO – NH – CH(CH
3
) – COOH
(2) HOOC – CH
2
– NH – CO – CH(CH
3
) – NH
2
(3) HOOC – CH(CH
3
) – NH – CO – CH
2
– NH
2
(4) H
2
N – CH(CH
3
) – CO – NH – CH
2
– COOH
306 E/A ( 3 )
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
6. The Cu metal crystallises into fcc lattice with a unit cell edge length of 361 pm. The radius of Cu atom is :
(1) 127 pm (2) 181 pm
(3) 157 pm (4) 108 pm
7. If 75% of a first order reaction gets completed in 32 minutes, time taken for 50% completion of
this reaction is
(1) 16 minutes (2) 78 minutes
(3) 8 minutes (4) 4 minutes
8. Which of the following compounds will be repelled when placed in an external magnetic field ?
(1) Na
2
[CuCl
4
] (2) Na
2
[CdCl
4
]
(3) K
4
[Fe(CN)
6
] (4) K
3
[Fe(CN)
6
]
9. The spin only magnetic moment of Hexacyanidomanganate(II) ion is ____________ BM.
(1) 5.90 (2) 1.73
(3) 4.90 (4) 3.87
10. The correct order of increasing boiling points of the following compounds is :
Pentan-1-ol, n-Butane, Pentanal, Ethoxyethane
(1) Ethoxyethane, Pentanal, n-Butane, Pentan-1-ol
(2) Pentanal, n-Butane, Ethoxyethane, Pentan-1-ol
(3) n-Butane, Pentanal, Ethoxyethane, Pentan-1-ol
(4) n-Butane, Ethoxyethane, Pentanal, Pentan-1-ol
11. In the following reaction, identify the product D.
C
6
H
5
– OH ? ? ? ?
dust Zn
A ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ?
?
3 3
AlCl . anhy Cl CH
B
? ? ? ? ? ? ? ?
?
4 2 7 2 2
SO H O Cr K
C ? ? ? ? ? ? ?
?
3 4 2
HNO SO H
D
(1) o-Nitrobenzoic acid
(2) p-Nitrobenzoic acid
(3) o,p-Dinitrobenzoic acid
(4) m-Nitrobenzoic acid
Page 4
A
Test Booklet No. Test Booklet Code
>
(Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so)
Time Allowed : 60 minutes Maximum Marks : 200 Total Questions : 50 Number of questions to be answered : 40
Kindly read the Instructions given on this Page and Back Page carefully before attempting this Question Paper.
Important Instructions for the Candidates :
1. This Test Booklet contains 50 questions printed in English. Out of these, the candidate is required to answer any
40 questions. If a candidate answers more than 40 questions, the first 40 answered questions will be considered for
evaluation.
2. When you are given the OMR Answer Sheet, fill in your particulars on it carefully with blue/black ball point pen only.
3. Use only Blue/Black Ball Point Pen for marking responses.
4. The CODE for this Test Booklet is A. Make sure that the CODE printed on the OMR Answer Sheet is the same as that
on this Test Booklet. Also ensure that your Test Booklet No. and OMR Answer Sheet No. are exactly the same. In case
of discrepancy, the candidate should immediately report the matter to the Invigilator for replacement of both the Test
Booklet and the OMR Answer Sheet. No claim in this regard will be entertained after five minutes from the start of the
examination.
5. Before attempting the question paper kindly check that this Test Booklet has total 16 pages and OMR Answer Sheet
consists of one sheet. At the start of the examination within first five minutes, candidates are advised to ensure that all
pages of Test Booklet and OMR Answer Sheet are properly printed and they are not damaged in any manner.
6. Each question has four answer options. Out of these four options choose the MOST APPROPRIATE OPTION and
darken/blacken the corresponding circle on the OMR Answer Sheet with a Blue/Black Ball Point Pen.
7. Five (5) marks will be given for each correct answer. One (1) mark will be deducted for each incorrect answer. If more
than one circle is found darkened/blackened for a question, then it will be considered as an incorrect answer.
Unanswered questions will be given no mark.
P.T.O.
Name of the Candidate (in Capital Letters) : ___________________________________________________________________
Application Number (in figures) : ______________________________________________________________________________
Roll Number (in figures) : ___________________________________________________________________________________
Centre of Examination (in Capital Letters) : ___________________________________________________________________
Candidate’s Signature : ____________________________ Invigilator’s Signature : ___________________________________
Facsimile signature stamp of Centre Superintendent : __________________________________________________________
Subject : CHEMISTRY
Code : 306 E
Medium : English
306 E/A ( 2 )
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
1. The total number of ions produced from the complex [Cr(NH
3
)
6
]Cl
3
in aqueous solution will be ________.
(1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 4 (4) 5
2. Arrange the following in decreasing order of number of molecules contained in :
(A) 16 g of O
2
(B) 16 g of CO
2
(C) 16 g of CO
(D) 16 g of H
2
Choose the correct order from the options given below :
(1) (A), (B), (C), (D)
(2) (D), (C), (A), (B)
(3) (B), (A), (D), (C)
(4) (C), (B), (D), (A)
3. A molecule X associates in a given solvent as per the following equation :
X ? (X)
n
For a given concentration of X, the van't Hoff factor was found to be 0.80 and the fraction of associated
molecules was 0.3. The correct value of ‘n’ is :
(1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 1 (4) 5
4. The oxidation number of Co in complex [Co(H
2
NCH
2
CH
2
NH
2
)
3
]
2
(SO
4
)
3
is
(1) 3 (2) 4
(3) 2 (4) 5
5. The correct structure of dipeptide, Gly-Ala (glycyl alanine) is
(1) H
2
N – CH
2
– CO – NH – CH(CH
3
) – COOH
(2) HOOC – CH
2
– NH – CO – CH(CH
3
) – NH
2
(3) HOOC – CH(CH
3
) – NH – CO – CH
2
– NH
2
(4) H
2
N – CH(CH
3
) – CO – NH – CH
2
– COOH
306 E/A ( 3 )
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
6. The Cu metal crystallises into fcc lattice with a unit cell edge length of 361 pm. The radius of Cu atom is :
(1) 127 pm (2) 181 pm
(3) 157 pm (4) 108 pm
7. If 75% of a first order reaction gets completed in 32 minutes, time taken for 50% completion of
this reaction is
(1) 16 minutes (2) 78 minutes
(3) 8 minutes (4) 4 minutes
8. Which of the following compounds will be repelled when placed in an external magnetic field ?
(1) Na
2
[CuCl
4
] (2) Na
2
[CdCl
4
]
(3) K
4
[Fe(CN)
6
] (4) K
3
[Fe(CN)
6
]
9. The spin only magnetic moment of Hexacyanidomanganate(II) ion is ____________ BM.
(1) 5.90 (2) 1.73
(3) 4.90 (4) 3.87
10. The correct order of increasing boiling points of the following compounds is :
Pentan-1-ol, n-Butane, Pentanal, Ethoxyethane
(1) Ethoxyethane, Pentanal, n-Butane, Pentan-1-ol
(2) Pentanal, n-Butane, Ethoxyethane, Pentan-1-ol
(3) n-Butane, Pentanal, Ethoxyethane, Pentan-1-ol
(4) n-Butane, Ethoxyethane, Pentanal, Pentan-1-ol
11. In the following reaction, identify the product D.
C
6
H
5
– OH ? ? ? ?
dust Zn
A ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ?
?
3 3
AlCl . anhy Cl CH
B
? ? ? ? ? ? ? ?
?
4 2 7 2 2
SO H O Cr K
C ? ? ? ? ? ? ?
?
3 4 2
HNO SO H
D
(1) o-Nitrobenzoic acid
(2) p-Nitrobenzoic acid
(3) o,p-Dinitrobenzoic acid
(4) m-Nitrobenzoic acid
306 E/A ( 4 )
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
12. The gold number range of some of the lyophilic colloids is given below :
A : 0.005 – 0.01, B : 0.15 – 0.25, C : 0.04 – 1.0 and D : 15 – 25.
Which among these can be used as a better protective colloid ?
(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D
13. Reaction of aniline with conc. HNO
3
and conc. H
2
SO
4
at 298 K will produce 47% of
(1) p-Nitroaniline
(2) o-Nitroaniline
(3) m-Nitroaniline
(4) 2,4-Dinitroaniline
14. What will be increasing order of basic strength of the following compounds ?
C
2
H
5
NH
2
, (C
2
H
5
)
2
NH, (C
2
H
5
)
3
N, C
6
H
5
NH
2
(1) C
2
H
5
NH
2
< (C
2
H
5
)
2
NH < (C
2
H
5
)
3
N < C
6
H
5
NH
2
(2) C
6
H
5
NH
2
< C
2
H
5
NH
2
< (C
2
H
5
)
3
N < (C
2
H
5
)
2
NH
(3) (C
2
H
5
)
3
N < (C
2
H
5
)
2
NH < C
6
H
5
NH
2
< C
2
H
5
NH
2
(4) (C
2
H
5
)
2
NH < (C
2
H
5
)
3
N < C
2
H
5
NH
2
< C
6
H
5
NH
2
15. Which of the following compounds will give Hell-Volhard-Zelinsky reaction ?
(1) R – CH
2
– COOH (2) R
3
C – CHO
(3) R
2
CO (4) H – COOH
16. Arrange the following acids in increasing order of their acidic strengths :
HCOOH, FCH
2
COOH, NO
2
CH
2
COOH, ClCH
2
COOH
(1) HCOOH < FCH
2
COOH < NO
2
CH
2
COOH < ClCH
2
COOH
(2) HCOOH < NO
2
CH
2
COOH < ClCH
2
COOH < FCH
2
COOH
(3) NO
2
CH
2
COOH < HCOOH < ClCH
2
COOH < FCH
2
COOH
(4) HCOOH < ClCH
2
COOH < FCH
2
COOH < NO
2
CH
2
COOH
Page 5
A
Test Booklet No. Test Booklet Code
>
(Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so)
Time Allowed : 60 minutes Maximum Marks : 200 Total Questions : 50 Number of questions to be answered : 40
Kindly read the Instructions given on this Page and Back Page carefully before attempting this Question Paper.
Important Instructions for the Candidates :
1. This Test Booklet contains 50 questions printed in English. Out of these, the candidate is required to answer any
40 questions. If a candidate answers more than 40 questions, the first 40 answered questions will be considered for
evaluation.
2. When you are given the OMR Answer Sheet, fill in your particulars on it carefully with blue/black ball point pen only.
3. Use only Blue/Black Ball Point Pen for marking responses.
4. The CODE for this Test Booklet is A. Make sure that the CODE printed on the OMR Answer Sheet is the same as that
on this Test Booklet. Also ensure that your Test Booklet No. and OMR Answer Sheet No. are exactly the same. In case
of discrepancy, the candidate should immediately report the matter to the Invigilator for replacement of both the Test
Booklet and the OMR Answer Sheet. No claim in this regard will be entertained after five minutes from the start of the
examination.
5. Before attempting the question paper kindly check that this Test Booklet has total 16 pages and OMR Answer Sheet
consists of one sheet. At the start of the examination within first five minutes, candidates are advised to ensure that all
pages of Test Booklet and OMR Answer Sheet are properly printed and they are not damaged in any manner.
6. Each question has four answer options. Out of these four options choose the MOST APPROPRIATE OPTION and
darken/blacken the corresponding circle on the OMR Answer Sheet with a Blue/Black Ball Point Pen.
7. Five (5) marks will be given for each correct answer. One (1) mark will be deducted for each incorrect answer. If more
than one circle is found darkened/blackened for a question, then it will be considered as an incorrect answer.
Unanswered questions will be given no mark.
P.T.O.
Name of the Candidate (in Capital Letters) : ___________________________________________________________________
Application Number (in figures) : ______________________________________________________________________________
Roll Number (in figures) : ___________________________________________________________________________________
Centre of Examination (in Capital Letters) : ___________________________________________________________________
Candidate’s Signature : ____________________________ Invigilator’s Signature : ___________________________________
Facsimile signature stamp of Centre Superintendent : __________________________________________________________
Subject : CHEMISTRY
Code : 306 E
Medium : English
306 E/A ( 2 )
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
1. The total number of ions produced from the complex [Cr(NH
3
)
6
]Cl
3
in aqueous solution will be ________.
(1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 4 (4) 5
2. Arrange the following in decreasing order of number of molecules contained in :
(A) 16 g of O
2
(B) 16 g of CO
2
(C) 16 g of CO
(D) 16 g of H
2
Choose the correct order from the options given below :
(1) (A), (B), (C), (D)
(2) (D), (C), (A), (B)
(3) (B), (A), (D), (C)
(4) (C), (B), (D), (A)
3. A molecule X associates in a given solvent as per the following equation :
X ? (X)
n
For a given concentration of X, the van't Hoff factor was found to be 0.80 and the fraction of associated
molecules was 0.3. The correct value of ‘n’ is :
(1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 1 (4) 5
4. The oxidation number of Co in complex [Co(H
2
NCH
2
CH
2
NH
2
)
3
]
2
(SO
4
)
3
is
(1) 3 (2) 4
(3) 2 (4) 5
5. The correct structure of dipeptide, Gly-Ala (glycyl alanine) is
(1) H
2
N – CH
2
– CO – NH – CH(CH
3
) – COOH
(2) HOOC – CH
2
– NH – CO – CH(CH
3
) – NH
2
(3) HOOC – CH(CH
3
) – NH – CO – CH
2
– NH
2
(4) H
2
N – CH(CH
3
) – CO – NH – CH
2
– COOH
306 E/A ( 3 )
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
6. The Cu metal crystallises into fcc lattice with a unit cell edge length of 361 pm. The radius of Cu atom is :
(1) 127 pm (2) 181 pm
(3) 157 pm (4) 108 pm
7. If 75% of a first order reaction gets completed in 32 minutes, time taken for 50% completion of
this reaction is
(1) 16 minutes (2) 78 minutes
(3) 8 minutes (4) 4 minutes
8. Which of the following compounds will be repelled when placed in an external magnetic field ?
(1) Na
2
[CuCl
4
] (2) Na
2
[CdCl
4
]
(3) K
4
[Fe(CN)
6
] (4) K
3
[Fe(CN)
6
]
9. The spin only magnetic moment of Hexacyanidomanganate(II) ion is ____________ BM.
(1) 5.90 (2) 1.73
(3) 4.90 (4) 3.87
10. The correct order of increasing boiling points of the following compounds is :
Pentan-1-ol, n-Butane, Pentanal, Ethoxyethane
(1) Ethoxyethane, Pentanal, n-Butane, Pentan-1-ol
(2) Pentanal, n-Butane, Ethoxyethane, Pentan-1-ol
(3) n-Butane, Pentanal, Ethoxyethane, Pentan-1-ol
(4) n-Butane, Ethoxyethane, Pentanal, Pentan-1-ol
11. In the following reaction, identify the product D.
C
6
H
5
– OH ? ? ? ?
dust Zn
A ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ?
?
3 3
AlCl . anhy Cl CH
B
? ? ? ? ? ? ? ?
?
4 2 7 2 2
SO H O Cr K
C ? ? ? ? ? ? ?
?
3 4 2
HNO SO H
D
(1) o-Nitrobenzoic acid
(2) p-Nitrobenzoic acid
(3) o,p-Dinitrobenzoic acid
(4) m-Nitrobenzoic acid
306 E/A ( 4 )
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
12. The gold number range of some of the lyophilic colloids is given below :
A : 0.005 – 0.01, B : 0.15 – 0.25, C : 0.04 – 1.0 and D : 15 – 25.
Which among these can be used as a better protective colloid ?
(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D
13. Reaction of aniline with conc. HNO
3
and conc. H
2
SO
4
at 298 K will produce 47% of
(1) p-Nitroaniline
(2) o-Nitroaniline
(3) m-Nitroaniline
(4) 2,4-Dinitroaniline
14. What will be increasing order of basic strength of the following compounds ?
C
2
H
5
NH
2
, (C
2
H
5
)
2
NH, (C
2
H
5
)
3
N, C
6
H
5
NH
2
(1) C
2
H
5
NH
2
< (C
2
H
5
)
2
NH < (C
2
H
5
)
3
N < C
6
H
5
NH
2
(2) C
6
H
5
NH
2
< C
2
H
5
NH
2
< (C
2
H
5
)
3
N < (C
2
H
5
)
2
NH
(3) (C
2
H
5
)
3
N < (C
2
H
5
)
2
NH < C
6
H
5
NH
2
< C
2
H
5
NH
2
(4) (C
2
H
5
)
2
NH < (C
2
H
5
)
3
N < C
2
H
5
NH
2
< C
6
H
5
NH
2
15. Which of the following compounds will give Hell-Volhard-Zelinsky reaction ?
(1) R – CH
2
– COOH (2) R
3
C – CHO
(3) R
2
CO (4) H – COOH
16. Arrange the following acids in increasing order of their acidic strengths :
HCOOH, FCH
2
COOH, NO
2
CH
2
COOH, ClCH
2
COOH
(1) HCOOH < FCH
2
COOH < NO
2
CH
2
COOH < ClCH
2
COOH
(2) HCOOH < NO
2
CH
2
COOH < ClCH
2
COOH < FCH
2
COOH
(3) NO
2
CH
2
COOH < HCOOH < ClCH
2
COOH < FCH
2
COOH
(4) HCOOH < ClCH
2
COOH < FCH
2
COOH < NO
2
CH
2
COOH
306 E/A ( 5 )
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
17. In the following compounds, what is the increasing order of their reactivity towards nucleophilic addition
reactions ?
Benzaldehyde, p-Tolualdehyde, p-Nitrobenzaldehyde, Acetophenone
(1) Benzaldehyde < p-Tolualdehyde < p-Nitrobenzaldehyde < Acetophenone
(2) Acetophenone < Benzaldehyde < p-Tolualdehyde < p-Nitrobenzaldehyde
(3) Acetophenone < p-Tolualdehyde < Benzaldehyde < p-Nitrobenzaldehyde
(4) Benzaldehyde < Acetophenone < p-Tolualdehyde < p-Nitrobenzaldehyde
18. The Gatterman-Koch reaction is used in the industrial preparation of benzaldehyde. The electrophile
involved in this reaction is
(1) CO
+
(2) HCl + CO
2
+ anhydrous AlCl
3
(3) HCO
+
(4) CO + anhydrous AlCl
3
19. Formaldehyde undergoes Cannizzaro reaction because
(A) It has alpha-hydrogen atom.
(B) It does not have alpha-hydrogen atom.
(C) It does not undergo self-oxidation and reduction on heating with concentrated alkali.
(D) It undergo self-oxidation and reduction on heating with concentrated alkali.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (B) and (D) only (2) (A) and (C) only
(3) (B) and (C) only (4) (A) and (D) only
20. In the reaction, (CH
3
)
3
C – O – CH
3
+ HI ? Products
CH
3
OH and (CH
3
)
3
CI are the products and not CH
3
I and (CH
3
)
3
C – OH. It is because,
(A) in step 2 of the reaction the departure of leaving group (HO – CH
3
) creates less stable carbocation.
(B) in step 2 of the reaction the departure of leaving group (HO – CH
3
) creates more stable carbocation.
(C) the reaction follows S
N
1 mechanism.
(D) the reaction follows S
N
2 mechanism.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (B) and (D) only (2) (B) and (C) only
(3) (A) and (D) only (4) (A) and (C) only
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