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Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 4 - Judiciary Exams MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test Series 2025 - Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 4

Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 4 for Judiciary Exams 2025 is part of Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test Series 2025 preparation. The Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 4 questions and answers have been prepared according to the Judiciary Exams exam syllabus.The Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 4 MCQs are made for Judiciary Exams 2025 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 4 below.
Solutions of Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 4 questions in English are available as part of our Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test Series 2025 for Judiciary Exams & Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 4 solutions in Hindi for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test Series 2025 course. Download more important topics, notes, lectures and mock test series for Judiciary Exams Exam by signing up for free. Attempt Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 4 | 100 questions in 120 minutes | Mock test for Judiciary Exams preparation | Free important questions MCQ to study Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test Series 2025 for Judiciary Exams Exam | Download free PDF with solutions
Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 4 - Question 1
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Directions: In this the following question, four words have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and the fourth one is different. Choose the odd one out. 

Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 4 - Question 1

All except Sitar are wind instruments, while sitar is a string instrument.

Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 4 - Question 2
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The Fundamental Right conferred under Article 19 of the Constitution of India is available to:

Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 4 - Question 2
Article 19 of the Constitution of India grants six freedoms (e.g., speech, assembly, movement) exclusively to citizens of India. Foreigners, whether living in India or not, are not entitled to these Fundamental Rights under Article 19, though they may enjoy other rights (e.g., under Article 21). Thus, only citizens qualify (Option A). Options B, C, and D incorrectly include foreigners. Hence, Option A is the correct choice.
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Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 4 - Question 3
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What does the BNSS allow regarding electronic communication devices during investigations?

Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 4 - Question 3
The BNSS permits the production of electronic communication devices likely to contain digital evidence for investigation, inquiry, or trial. Hence, Option B is correct.
Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 4 - Question 4
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Which one of the following is incorrect combination regarding definition of offences as per the Indian Penal Code?
Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 4 - Question 4
The correct definitions under the Indian Penal Code are:
- Sec.320: Defines what injuries constitute grievous hurt (not the definition of grievous hurt; the actual definition is under Sec.319).
- Sec.340: Defines wrongful restraint.
- Sec.350: Defines criminal force.
- Sec.351: Defines assault.
Section 320 does not define grievous hurt; it lists specific injuries classified as grievous hurt. The definition of grievous hurt is under Section 319. Thus, Option A is the incorrect combination.
Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 4 - Question 5
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Who is entitled to seek relief under the Specific Relief Act for the recovery of possession of immovable property?
Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 4 - Question 5

The Specific Relief Act allows any person who has been dispossessed of immovable property, or anyone claiming through them, to file a suit for recovery of possession. This means that heirs or representatives of the dispossessed individual can also seek relief, emphasizing the heritable nature of possession rights, but it excludes trespassers or those without lawful possession.

Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 4 - Question 6
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National Legal Services Day is celebrated in India on______.
Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 4 - Question 6

National Legal Services Day is celebrated on 9th November every year in India to commemorate the enactment of the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, and to promote access to justice. Hence, Option D is the correct choice.

Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 4 - Question 7
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What does "absolute interest" in property signify?
Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 4 - Question 7
Absolute interest in property refers to ownership comprising a bundle of rights, including possession, enjoyment, and the ability to sell, mortgage, or gift the property. Option B accurately describes this concept.
Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 4 - Question 8
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What does the BNSS require forensic experts to do at crime scenes?
Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 4 - Question 8
The BNSS mandates forensic experts to collect forensic evidence and record the process on mobile phones or other electronic devices at crime scenes. Hence, Option B is correct.
Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 4 - Question 9
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What is a cognizable offense under the CrPC retained in the BNSS?
Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 4 - Question 9
A cognizable offense allows the police to arrest and investigate without a warrant, a provision retained from the CrPC in the BNSS. Hence, Option B is correct.
Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 4 - Question 10
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Which of the following is NOT a focus of BNS 2023?
Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 4 - Question 10
BNS 2023 focuses on criminal offenses like cyber offenses, hate crimes, and identity theft, but not on civil disputes. Hence, Option C is the correct choice.
Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 4 - Question 11
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Right to travel abroad has been held to be included within the expression “…………………….” Within the meaning of Art. 21
Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 4 - Question 11

Article 21 of the Constitution of India, 1950 provides that, 'No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law.'

Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 4 - Question 12
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In an indemnity contract, what does the indemnifier agree to do regardless of fault?
Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 4 - Question 12
In an indemnity contract, the indemnifier agrees to provide compensation to the indemnitee regardless of fault. This means that the indemnifier is obligated to compensate the indemnitee for any loss or damage incurred, irrespective of whether the fault lies with the indemnifier or not. This aspect of an indemnity contract ensures that the indemnitee is protected and supported in case of financial loss.
Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 4 - Question 13
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Giving false written document in the form of evidence to the court in a case is known as
Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 4 - Question 13

Section 191 of the Indian Penal Code explains that giving false evidence means a person bound by oath or express provision of law, to tell the truth, makes a false statement or a statement that he doesn’t believe to be true or believes to be false. False statement or evidence given by a person can be in written form or otherwise (oral or indicative). Section 191 is also known as 'Perjury' under English Perjury Act 1911.

Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 4 - Question 14
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If there is no specific provision under the Limitation Act, 1963 providing period of limitation for filing a suit, then such suit has to be filed _______
Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 4 - Question 14
Under Article 113 of the Limitation Act, 1963, the residual limitation period for suits not specifically provided for is three years from the date the right to sue accrues. This applies as a default provision for cases without a specific limitation period. Hence, Option B is the correct choice.
Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 4 - Question 15
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What does BSA’s evidence law aim to balance?
Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 4 - Question 15
BSA’s evidence law balances the rights of the accused and the prosecution’s case for fairness. Hence, Option B is the correct choice.
Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 4 - Question 16
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Which Karnataka city is known as the "Silicon Valley of India"?
Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 4 - Question 16
Bengaluru is called the "Silicon Valley of India" due to its thriving IT industry and numerous tech companies.
Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 4 - Question 17
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In terms of Order XX Rule 6A of C.P.C., the decree shall be drawn _________
Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 4 - Question 17
Order XX Rule 6A of the C.P.C. requires that the decree be drawn up expeditiously, and in any case, within 15 days from the date of pronouncement of the judgment, to ensure timely execution. Options A, B, and C specify longer periods not prescribed by the rule. Hence, Option D is the correct choice.
Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 4 - Question 18
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What is "res gestae" under BSA?
Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 4 - Question 18
Res gestae under BSA refers to spontaneous, contemporaneous statements made as part of a crime’s transaction, considered reliable, not contracts, judgments, or reports. Hence, Option B is the correct choice.
Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 4 - Question 19
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When does a defendant in a legal case typically need to submit their written statement?
Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 4 - Question 19
In legal proceedings, the defendant is generally required to submit their written statement within thirty days of receiving the legal summons. This timeframe is crucial for the defendant to respond appropriately to the allegations and claims made against them.
Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 4 - Question 20
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As per Section 122 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, if the donee dies before the acceptance of the gift, said gift is______
Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 4 - Question 20

Section 122 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, requires that a gift be accepted by the donee during their lifetime for it to be valid. If the donee dies before accepting the gift, the gift is void as the essential element of acceptance is absent. Hence, Option D is the correct choice.

Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 4 - Question 21
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Under Section 6 of the Specific Relief Act, what is the time limit for filing a suit after dispossession of immovable property?
Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 4 - Question 21

Section 6 of the Specific Relief Act stipulates that a person dispossessed of immovable property without consent must file a suit for recovery of possession within six months of dispossession. This provision is designed to provide a swift legal remedy to prevent unlawful dispossession and to discourage individuals from taking the law into their own hands.

Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 4 - Question 22
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In legal proceedings, what does setting aside an ex-parte order typically involve?
Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 4 - Question 22
Setting aside an ex-parte order in legal proceedings often involves allowing the absent party to challenge the order under specific legal provisions. This process ensures fairness by providing an opportunity for the absent party to present reasons for their non-appearance and seek a reversal of the decision.
Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 4 - Question 23
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Under which of the following fundamental rights, Sikhs are permitted to carry kirpan in India?
Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 4 - Question 23

As per Article 25, “The wearing and carrying of kirpans shall be deemed to be included in the profession of the Sikh religion.” 

Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 4 - Question 24
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What is the significance of consideration in a contract according to the Indian Contract Act, 1872?
Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 4 - Question 24
Consideration holds a vital role in a contract according to the Indian Contract Act, 1872, as it is essential for a contract to be legally valid. It ensures that there is a mutual exchange of value between the parties involved, indicating a serious intention to create a legal relationship. Without consideration, a contract is considered void. This principle safeguards against gratuitous promises and emphasizes the binding nature of agreements.
Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 4 - Question 25
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When may the court decide to retain all parties involved in an interpleader suit until its conclusion?
Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 4 - Question 25
The court may opt to retain all parties involved in an interpleader suit until its resolution if it deems it necessary for fairness, appropriateness, or convenience. This decision allows the court to ensure that all stakeholders remain engaged in the legal proceedings until a just resolution is reached, guaranteeing that the interests of all parties are adequately considered and addressed.
Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 4 - Question 26
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A non-residential premises, with plinth area of 16 square meters used for commercial purpose, has been let out. Which Act is applicable to the said premises to evict the tenant?
Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 4 - Question 26
The Karnataka Rent Act, 1999, applied to non-residential premises with a plinth area exceeding 14 square meters in specified areas, but it was repealed in 2019. Eviction of tenants for such premises is now governed by the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, under Section 106 for lease termination. Hence, Option B is the correct choice.
Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 4 - Question 27
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After completion of investigation, the police is to submit a final report to Magistrate. The Magistrate:
Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 4 - Question 27
Under Section 173(8) of the Cr.P.C., a Magistrate is not bound by the police’s conclusions in the final report and may order further investigation if satisfied that it is necessary, as per judicial discretion (Option A). The Magistrate may also issue process against the accused under Section 204 if a prima facie case exists (Option B), but this is not the only option. Option C is incorrect, as the Magistrate is not bound to accept police conclusions. Option D is incorrect, as it includes the incorrect Option C. Hence, Option A is the correct choice.
Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 4 - Question 28
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What can be the maximum interval between two sessions of either House of Parliament?
Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 4 - Question 28
Article 85(1) of the Constitution of India requires that the President summon each House of Parliament so that the interval between two sessions does not exceed six months. This ensures regular parliamentary functioning. Options A, C, and D do not align with this constitutional mandate. Hence, Option B is the correct choice.
Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 4 - Question 29
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In which of the following ways can Indian citizenship be acquired?
Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 4 - Question 29

There are 5 ways to acquire Indian citizenship:

  • by Birth
  • by Descent
  • by Registration
  • by Naturalization
  • by Incorporation of territories
Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 4 - Question 30
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If second half of the following alphabet is written in reverse order then which letter will be 10th from left of 9th letter from the right end?
A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 4 - Question 30

A,B,C,D,E,F,G,H,I,J,K,L,M,Z,Y,X,W,V,U,T,S,R,Q,P,O,N
According to the arrangement 
Ninth letter from the right end = V
Tenth letter to left of V = H.

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