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Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 10 - Judiciary Exams MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test Series 2025 - Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 10

Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 10 for Judiciary Exams 2025 is part of Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test Series 2025 preparation. The Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 10 questions and answers have been prepared according to the Judiciary Exams exam syllabus.The Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 10 MCQs are made for Judiciary Exams 2025 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 10 below.
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Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 10 - Question 1

What distinguishes coercion from undue influence in contract law based on the provided content?

Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 10 - Question 1
In contract law, coercion and undue influence differ notably in terms of the burden of proof. The burden of proof lies with the dominating party in cases of undue influence to demonstrate that their influence was not improper. Conversely, in cases of coercion, the burden of proof lies with the aggrieved party to show the use of force or threats.
Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 10 - Question 2

The allied provision to Section 114 of C.P.C. is:

Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 10 - Question 2
Section 114 of the C.P.C. provides for the review of judgments by a court in case of errors apparent on the face of the record. Its allied provision is Order XLI, which governs appeals from original decrees, as review and appeal are related mechanisms for correcting judicial errors. Section 151 (Option A) deals with inherent powers, Section 105 (Option B) with orders affecting decrees, and Order XLVII Rule 1 (Option D) governs review but is subordinate to Section 114. Hence, Option C is the correct choice.
Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 10 - Question 3

Under what circumstances is a suit considered deficient due to the non-joinder of necessary parties, potentially warranting dismissal?

Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 10 - Question 3
A suit can be deemed deficient due to the non-joinder of necessary parties when individuals who are essential to the case or whose interests may be affected by the outcome are not included in the legal proceedings. Failure to join necessary parties can undermine the completeness and effectiveness of the litigation process, potentially leading to the dismissal of the suit.
Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 10 - Question 4
What distinguishes an invitation to offer from an offer in a contractual context?
Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 10 - Question 4
An invitation to offer can transform into an offer if accepted by the other party, whereas an offer becomes a legally binding agreement upon acceptance by the other party. This distinction is crucial in understanding the progression from preliminary negotiations to the establishment of a legally binding contract.
Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 10 - Question 5

The right to equality______.

Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 10 - Question 5

The right to equality allows the state to make special provisions for certain groups.

  • The state can create special provisions for women, children, and backward classes.
  • This means the government is allowed to take steps to help these groups, even while upholding equality for all.
  • Such measures aim to ensure fairness and support those who may need extra assistance in society.
Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 10 - Question 6

Protection and interests of the minorities is envisaged in which article of the constitution?

Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 10 - Question 6

Article 29 – Protection of Interests of Minorities

This article is intended to protect the interests of minority groups.

Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 10 - Question 7
How can contracts affected by undue influence typically be remedied?
Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 10 - Question 7
Contracts tainted by undue influence can usually be remedied by the affected party seeking to have the contract either set aside or modified to rectify the imbalance caused by the undue influence. This legal recourse aims to restore fairness and protect the party who was subjected to the undue influence.
Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 10 - Question 8
Which Section of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 deals with the effect of material alteration of a negotiable instrument?
Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 10 - Question 8
Section 87 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, states that any material alteration of a negotiable instrument (e.g., changing the amount or date) renders it void unless made with the consent of all parties liable. Section 85 (Option A) deals with cheque liability, Section 86 (Option B) with acceptance variations, and Section 88 (Option D) with payment liability. Hence, Option C is the correct choice.
Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 10 - Question 9

White is to snow as black is to

Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 10 - Question 9

EXP: As white is the colour of snow so Black is the colour of coal

Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 10 - Question 10
Which of the following is an essential ingredient of common object?
Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 10 - Question 10
Common object under Section 141 requires that the offence be committed in prosecution of the common object of the unlawful assembly. Hence, Option B is the correct choice.
Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 10 - Question 11
What defines an ex-parte order in legal proceedings?
Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 10 - Question 11
An ex-parte order in legal proceedings is characterized by a court decision made without one party's presence. This type of order is typically granted in urgent situations when immediate relief is sought, and the other party is unavailable to respond. It ensures that both parties have the opportunity to present their cases but is initially decided without the participation of one party.
Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 10 - Question 12
What is a key innovation in BNS 2023 regarding punishment?
Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 10 - Question 12
BNS 2023 integrates technology in monitoring and enforcement processes for a more efficient legal system. Hence, Option B is the correct choice.
Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 10 - Question 13
Under the BNSS, who is denied mandatory bail after serving half the maximum imprisonment?
Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 10 - Question 13
The BNSS denies mandatory bail to those facing multiple charges, even if they’ve served half the maximum imprisonment, limiting bail access. Hence, Option B is correct.
Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 10 - Question 14
What is the significance of promoting fair trial practices in the context of electronic evidence?
Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 10 - Question 14
Promoting fair trial practices concerning electronic evidence is crucial for upholding the integrity of the legal system. By ensuring transparency, impartiality, and adherence to due process, fair trial practices safeguard the rights of individuals and maintain the credibility and trustworthiness of judicial outcomes.
Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 10 - Question 15
What is the liability of the drawer of a bill of exchange?
Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 10 - Question 15
The drawer’s liability is secondary and contingent, arising only upon dishonor by the drawee or acceptor, making Option B correct.
Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 10 - Question 16
Which of the following orders does not amount to a decree under Section 2(2) of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?
Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 10 - Question 16
Section 2(2) of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, defines a decree as a formal adjudication that conclusively determines the rights of parties. An order rejecting a plaint (Order 7 Rule 11) and an order under Section 144 (restitution) are deemed decrees. However, an order dismissing a suit for default (Order 9 Rule 8) is not a decree as it does not determine rights conclusively. Hence, Option C is the correct choice.
Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 10 - Question 17
A suit for recovery of possession of an immovable property under Sec.6 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 has to be filed within ___________ from the date of dispossession.
Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 10 - Question 17
Section 6(2)(a) of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, mandates that a suit for recovery of possession of immovable property based on prior possession (not title) must be filed within six months from the date of dispossession. This short limitation period ensures expeditious resolution. Hence, Option D is the correct choice.
Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 10 - Question 18
What is essential for a valid gift under Section 122?
Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 10 - Question 18
A valid gift requires voluntary transfer without consideration and acceptance by the donee during the donor’s lifetime while the donor is capable of giving. Option B is correct.
Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 10 - Question 19
What is a key prerequisite for the application of the Doctrine of Unjust Enrichment?
Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 10 - Question 19
One essential prerequisite for invoking the Doctrine of Unjust Enrichment is that the acquisition of enrichment should be perceived as unjust or unfair. This criterion is crucial in determining whether the situation warrants the intervention of the legal system to rectify any disparities caused by one party unfairly benefiting at the expense of another.
Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 10 - Question 20

In this following question, four words have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and the fourth one is different. Choose out the odd one out.

Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 10 - Question 20

The correct option is A.

All except Reader are persons involved in the preparation of a journal, newspaper or magazine.

Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 10 - Question 21
What does Section 124 of the legal provisions primarily address?
Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 10 - Question 21
Section 124 focuses on the protection of official communications where public officers cannot be compelled to disclose confidential communications if it risks public interest. This legal provision underscores the importance of maintaining confidentiality in certain situations to safeguard public interest and sensitive information.
Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 10 - Question 22
What is the role of an expert witness under BSA?
Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 10 - Question 22
Expert witnesses under BSA provide specialized opinions on topics like science or foreign law to assist the court, not to represent parties, judge cases, or collect evidence. Hence, Option B is the correct choice.
Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 10 - Question 23
Why is it important for a plaintiff to disclose any health issues or disabilities in a plaint?
Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 10 - Question 23
It is important for a plaintiff to disclose any health issues or disabilities in a plaint to ensure transparency and potentially impact legal proceedings. This disclosure helps in maintaining honesty in the case and could influence how the court approaches certain aspects of the legal matter.
Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 10 - Question 24

Art. 51 of the constitution refers to

Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 10 - Question 24

The correct option is C.
Article 51 in The Constitution Of India 1949. 51. Promotion of international peace and security The State shall endeavour to.

Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 10 - Question 25
Order 1 Rule 8 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 relates to:
Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 10 - Question 25
Order 1 Rule 8 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, deals with representative suits, where one or more persons can sue or defend on behalf of others having the same interest. Adding or striking parties is under Order 1 Rule 10, misjoinder/non-joinder under Order 1 Rule 9, and suits in the name of the wrong plaintiff under Order 1 Rule 10(2). Hence, Option B is the correct choice.
Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 10 - Question 26
When is an absolute restraint on transfer valid?
Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 10 - Question 26
Absolute restraint is valid in leases, where the lessor can restrict subletting, and for non-Hindu, Buddhist, or Muslim women during marriage. Option B is accurate.
Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 10 - Question 27
In a suit where the plaintiff relies upon a Will, when the matter is posted for evidence, the plaintiff proposes to examine one of the attestors to the Will before examining himself on the ground that his own examination would take some time and that the attestor has to go abroad immediately. In this situation, which of the following courses is open to the Court in terms of Order 18 Rule 3-A of the Code of Civil Procedure?
Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 10 - Question 27
Order 18 Rule 3-A of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, requires a party (e.g., plaintiff) to be examined before their witnesses unless the court permits otherwise for sufficient reasons. The court has discretion to allow the attestor to be examined first, especially if urgent circumstances (e.g., the attestor’s imminent travel abroad) justify it. Defendant’s consent or rebuttal evidence is not required. Hence, Option C is the correct choice.
Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 10 - Question 28
What does the deceived party have the right to do in a contract where fraudulent actions are involved?
Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 10 - Question 28
In a contract tainted by fraudulent actions, the deceived party holds the right to either affirm the contract as valid or nullify it. This decision-making power is crucial and is designed to protect the party who has been misled. It is essential for the deceived party to carefully consider their options and decide whether to uphold the contract despite the fraud or to declare it void.
Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 10 - Question 29
As per Section 21 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, as amended by Act No.18/2018, in a suit for specific performance:
Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 10 - Question 29
Section 21 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, as amended by Act No. 18 of 2018, allows a plaintiff in a suit for specific performance to seek specific performance of the contract and, in addition or in the alternative, claim compensation for its breach, providing flexibility in remedies. Hence, Option D is the correct choice.
Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 10 - Question 30
What issue arises with the BNSS’s handcuff provision?
Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 10 - Question 30
The BNSS’s provision allowing handcuffs for economic offenses and other cases contradicts Supreme Court rulings limiting their use. Hence, Option B is correct.
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