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Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Kerala PSC KAS MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test Kerala PSC KAS Mock Test Series 2025 - Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4

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Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 1

What was the immediate objective of the Akali movement?

Detailed Solution for Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 1
  • The Akali Movement is also known as Gurdwara Reform Movement came into full swing from the early 1920′s. Its aim was to bring reform in the management of Sikh Gurdwaras and wrest control from the corrupt mahants. The campaign which gained tremendous support, especially, from the rural masses, took the form of a peaceful agitation-marches, divans, religious gatherings, and demonstrations for Sikhs to assert their right to manage their places of worship. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

  • The Gurdwaras, its property, and wealth were being misused by the Mahants and Priests of the temple. With the establishment of British rule in Punjab, the lands and property attached to the Gurdwaras were entered against the names of the Priests or Mahants. Gurdwara Reform Movement or Akali Movement was created to free the Sikhs historic Gurdwaras from these Mahants who were supported by the British rule. The Sikhs had to give supreme sacrifices and endure untold brutalities to free historic Gurdwaras like Tarn Taran, Nanakana Sahib and Guru-Ka-Bagh. In addition, Sikhs had to fight for the freedom of faith and management of the Gurdwaras against the Government in respect of Gurdwara Rakab Ganj, Darbar Sahib, Amritsar, and Gurdwara Jaito.

  • In this movement, the Sikhs faced with great calm and courage the cruelties and death inflicted on them by the British Government and the Mahants, supported by the British. Eventually, the Gurdwara Reform Act was passed in July 1925 which placed all Gurdwaras in Punjab under Panthic control. This control was to be exercised through elected Panthic bodies viz, Shiromani Gurdwara Prabandak Committee and local Gurdwara Committees.

Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 2

Who led the Extremist faction within the Indian National Congress?

Detailed Solution for Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 2
The Extremist faction within the Indian National Congress was led by B. G. Tilak. He advocated for more radical methods and harbored separatist tendencies. His followers included prominent leaders like Lala Lajpat Rai and Bipin Chander Pal.
Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 3

Who was one of the key leaders in the unification of Italy?

Detailed Solution for Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 3

Giuseppe Garibaldi was one of the key leaders in the unification of Italy. He was a skilled military leader and played a significant role in the Italian unification movement. Garibaldi's efforts, along with other leaders like Camillo di Cavour, contributed to the formation of a unified Italian state.

Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 4

Which kingdom played a significant role in the unification of Italy and became the nucleus of the unified state?

Detailed Solution for Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 4

Kingdom of Sardinia played a significant role in the unification of Italy and became the nucleus of the unified state. Led by Victor Emmanuel II and Prime Minister Camillo di Cavour, the Kingdom of Sardinia expanded its territory and actively worked towards the unification of other Italian states.

Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 5

What was the name of the movement that sought to promote Italian nationalism and unity in the 19th century?

Detailed Solution for Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 5

Young Italy Movement was the name of the movement that sought to promote Italian nationalism and unity in the 19th century. It was founded by Giuseppe Mazzini, and its aim was to unite various Italian states and establish a single Italian nation.

Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 6

Which significant event in 1861 marked the formal proclamation of the Kingdom of Italy?

Detailed Solution for Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 6

Proclamation of the Kingdom of Italy in 1861 marked the formal proclamation of the unified Italian state. Victor Emmanuel II was declared the King of Italy, and the Kingdom of Italy was established with its capital in Turin.

Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 7

What event marked the beginning of the Second World War?

Detailed Solution for Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 7

The Second World War began on September 1, 1939, when Nazi Germany, under the leadership of Adolf Hitler, invaded Poland. This invasion led to Britain and France declaring war on Germany, officially starting the global conflict.

Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 8

Which event prompted the United States to enter the Second World War?

Detailed Solution for Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 8

The United States entered the Second World War on December 7, 1941, following the surprise attack by the Japanese on the American naval base at Pearl Harbor, Hawaii. This attack led to the U.S. declaring war on Japan and, subsequently, Germany and Italy.

Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 9

Which of the following modern-day countries is predominantly associated with the ancient Iranian civilization?

Detailed Solution for Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 9

The Iranian civilization predominantly corresponds to modern-day Iran, which was historically known as Persia.

Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 10

The ancient Iranian civilization is known for its contribution to which major world religion?

Detailed Solution for Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 10

Zoroastrianism, one of the world's oldest religions, originated in ancient Iran and was founded by the prophet Zoroaster.

Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 11

With reference to the Article 356, consider the following statements:

1. The governor has the power to recommend the dismissal of the state government.

2. The President’s proclamation has to be ratified by the Parliament.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 11
Article 356 of the Indian Constitution provides for President’s rule in any State. This provision is to be applied, when a situation has arisen in which the Government of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of this Constitution. It results in the takeover of the State government by the Union government.

Statement 1 is correct. The Governor has certain powers to recommend dismissal of the State government and the dissolution of the Assembly. Besides, even in normal circumstances, the Governor has the power to reserve a bill passed by the State legislature, for the assent of the President. This gives the central government an opportunity to delay the State legislation and also to examine such bills and veto them completely.

Statement 2 is correct. The President’s proclamation has to be ratified by the Parliament. President’s rule can be extended till three years beyond which a Constitutional Amendment is needed for the emergency to continue.

Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 12

Which of the following provisions reflect federalism with a strong Central Government?

  1. Power of Parliament to form a new State by uniting two or more states.

  2. The Constitutional emergency provisions.

  3. Financial powers and responsibilities of the Central Government.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 12
Federalism with a strong Central Government: -

Federal Government means establishing dual government with clear separation of power. However in India a strong centre is provided by giving more sets of power to the centre as compared to the states.

Statement 1 is correct. The Parliament is empowered to ‘form a new State by separation of territory from any State or by uniting two or more States’. It can also alter the boundary of any State or even its name. The Constitution provides for some safeguards by way of securing the view of the concerned State legislature.

Statement 2 is correct. The Constitution has certain very powerful emergency provisions, which can turn our federal polity into a highly centralized system once emergency is declared. During an emergency, power becomes lawfully centralized. Parliament also assumes the power to make laws on subjects within the jurisdiction of the States.

Statement 3 is correct. Even during normal circumstances, the central government has very effective financial powers and responsibilities. In the first place, items generating revenue are under the control of the central government. Thus, the central government has many revenue sources and the States are mostly dependent on the grants and financial assistance from the centre.

Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 13

Consider the following statements:

  1. The resolution for removal of Vice President can be initiated in Rajya Sabha only.

  2. Unlike the President, there is no process of impeachment of the Vice President.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 13
Statement 1 is correct. The term of office of the Vice President is five years. The term may end earlier by resignation which should be addressed to the President. The term of the office of the Vice President may also be terminated earlier through the process of removal. The Vice President may be removed by a resolution by the members of the Rajya Sabha. Such a resolution for removal of Vice President can be initiated in Rajya Sabha only.

Statement 2 is correct. To move such a resolution, a 14 days’ notice is to be given. Such a resolution, though passed by the Rajya Sabha only must be agreeable to the Lok Sabha. Unlike the President, there is no process of impeachment of the Vice President. Vice President is removed by a resolution passed by Rajya Sabha by effective majority (i.e. majority of all the then members of Rajya Sabha) and agreed by a simple majority in the

Lok Sabha.

Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 14

Consider the following statements:

  1. The Judiciary has the power to penalize those who are found guilty of contempt of court.

  2. The salaries and allowances of the judges are subject to the approval of the Parliament.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 14
Statement 1 is correct. The actions and decisions of the judges are immune from personal criticisms. The judiciary has the power to penalize those who are found guilty of contempt of court. This authority of the court is seen as an effective protection to the judges from unfair criticism. Parliament cannot discuss the conduct of the judges except when the proceeding to remove a judge is being carried out. This gives the judiciary independence to adjudicate without fear of being criticized.

The offence of contempt of court is committed when a person either disobeys a court order (civil contempt), or when a person says or does anything that scandalizes, prejudices, or interferes with judicial proceedings and the administration of justice (criminal contempt).

Statement 2 is incorrect. The judiciary is not financially dependent on either the executive or legislature. The Constitution provides that the salaries and allowances of the judges are not subjected to the approval of the legislature.

Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 15

Consider the following statements with regard to Delimitation Commission:

  1. It has the authority to decide which constituency is to be reserved.

  2. It is appointed by the President of India.

  3. It works in collaboration with the Election Commission of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 15
Delimitation Commission is set up via an act of Parliament to carry out delimitation of Parliamentary and State Legislature Constituencies after the Census. It was created in 1952, 1962, 1972 and 2002.

Statement 1 is correct. The Delimitation Commission decides the basis on which constituencies are reserved for SC and ST candidates as well as declares which of the constituencies would be reserved.

A quota of constituencies to be reserved in each State is fixed depending on the proportion of SC or ST in that State. After drawing the boundaries, the Delimitation Commission looks at the composition of population in each constituency. Those constituencies that have the highest proportion of Scheduled Tribe population are reserved for ST. In the case of Scheduled Castes, the Delimitation Commission looks at two things. It picks constituencies that have higher proportion of Scheduled Caste population. But it also spreads these constituencies in different regions of the State. This is done because the Scheduled Caste population is generally spread evenly throughout the country. These reserved constituencies can be rotated each time the

Delimitation exercise is undertaken Statements 2 and 3 are correct. The Delimitation Commission is appointed by the President of India and works in collaboration with the Election Commission of India. It is appointed for the purpose of drawing up the boundaries of constituencies all over the country.

Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 16

Consider the following statements regarding the Constituent Assembly:

  1. It ratified India’s membership to the Commonwealth.

  2. It was a fully elected body.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 16
Option (a) is the correct answer.

Statement 1 is correct. Constituent assembly did ratify India’s membership to the Commonwealth.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Constituent Assembly was a partly elected and partly nominated body. Moreover, the members were to be indirectly elected by the members of the provincial assemblies, who themselves were elected on a limited franchise.

Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 17

Which of the following falls within the meaning of the ‘State’ under Article 12 of the

Indian Constitution?

  1. High Court

  2. District Boards

  3. Life Insurance Corporation of India

  4. Panchayats

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 17
Option (d) is the correct answer.

Article 12 has defined the term for the purposes of Part III. According to it, the State includes the following:

(a) Government and Parliament of India i.e. executive and legislative organs of the Union government.

(b) Government and legislature of states i.e. executive and legislative organs of state government.

(c) All local authorities i.e. municipalities, panchayats, district boards, improvement trusts, etc.

(d) All other authorities i.e. statutory or non-statutory authorities like LIC, ONGC, SAIL, etc.

Thus, State has been defined in a wider sense so as to include all its agencies. It is the actions of these agencies that can be challenged in the courts as violating the Fundamental Rights.

According to the Supreme Court, even a private body or an agency working as an instrument of the State falls within the meaning of the ‘State’ under Article 12. High Court does not comes under article 12 of Indian constitution.

Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 18

Pointing to a photograph. Bajpai said, "He is the son of the only daughter of the father of my brother." How Bajpai is related to the man in the photograph?

Detailed Solution for Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 18

The man in the photo is the son of the sister of Bajpai. Hence, Bajpai is the maternal uncle of the man in the photograph.

Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 19

David gets on the elevator at the 11th floor of a building and rides up at the rate of 57 floors per minute. At the same time, Albert gets on an elevator at the 51st floor of the same building and rides down at the rate of 63 floors per minute. If they continue travelling at these rates, then at which floor will their paths cross ?

Detailed Solution for Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 19

Suppose their paths cross after x minutes.

Then, 11 + 57x = 51 - 63x    ⇔    120x = 40

x =1/3

Number of floors covered by David in (1/3) min. =((1/3)x 57)= 19

So, their paths cross at (11+19) i.e., 30th floor.

Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 20

x+(1/x) = 2, then find the value of x + (-1/x)

Detailed Solution for Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 20

X+(1/X) = 2 ;

(X^2+ 1)/ X = 2 ;

X^2+1 = 2X ;

X^2 - 2X + 1= 0 ;

By factorisation method ,

X = 1 ;

Now substitute X= 1 in X +(-1/X) ;

we get , 1 - 1/1 = 0 ;

Therefore , X = 0 ;

Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 21

The average of 7 consecutive number is n, if the next 2 number also included then the new average will be increased by ?

Detailed Solution for Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 21

Avg of 7 no= (7+1)/2 = 8/2 = 4
Avg of 9 no = (9+1)/2 = 5
5- 4 = 1
Hence increased by 1

Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 22

The average number of runs scored by Virat Kohli in four innings is 48. In the fifth inning, Kohli scores some runs such that his average now becomes 60. In the 6th innings he scores 12 runs more than his fifth innings and now the average of his last five innings becomes 78. How many runs did he score in his first innings? (He does not remain not out in any of the innings)

Detailed Solution for Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 22

Runs scored by Kohli in first 4 innings = 48*4 = 192
Average of 5 innings is 60, so total runs scored after 5 innings = 60*5 = 300
Hence runs scored by Kohli in fifth inning = 300 – 192 = 108
It is given that in 6th innings he scores 12 runs more than this, so he must score 120 in the sixth inning. Hence total runs scored in 6 innings = 300+120 = 420
Now average of last five innings is 78, so runs scored in last innings = 390
Hence runs scored in first inning = 420 – 390 = 30.

Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 23

X can do a piece of work in 20 days. He worked at it for 5 days and then Y finished it in 15 days. In how many days can X and Y together finish the work?

Detailed Solution for Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 23
  • X’s five day work = 5/20 = 1/4. Remaining work = 1 – 1/4 = 3/4.
  • This work was done by Y in 15 days. Y does 3/4th of the work in 15 days, he will finish the work in 15 × 4/3 = 20 days.  
  • X & Y together would take 1/20 + 1/20 = 2/20 = 1/10 i.e. 10 days to complete the work.

So Option C is correct

Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 24

Consider the following statement regarding ‘Weather’ and ‘climate’.

1. Climate refers to the sum total of weather conditions and variations over a large area for a

long period of time, while Weather refers to the state of the atmosphere over an area at any point of time.

2. The elements of weather and climate differs according to latitudinal shift.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 24
  • Statement 1 is correct. Climate describes what the weather is like over a long period of time in a specific area. Different regions can have different climates. To describe the climate of a place, we might say what the temperatures are like during different seasons, how windy it usually is, or how much rain or snow typically falls. Weather refers to short-term changes in the atmosphere. Even though there’s only one atmosphere on Earth, the weather isn’t the same all around the world. Weather is different in different parts of the world and changes over minutes, hours, days, and weeks.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect. The elements of weather and climate are the same, i.e. temperature, atmospheric pressure, wind, humidity and precipitation. At any point of time, the elements to decide the weather and climate of the region does not change, but remains constant.

Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 25

With reference to Jog Falls , consider the following statements:

1. It is created by the Sharavathi River.

2. It is the second-highest plunge waterfall in India.

3. It is situated in Kerala.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 25

Jog Falls project suffers setback as Centre asks Karnataka about impact assessment.

  • Statements 1 and 2 are correct : Jog Falls is created by the Sharavathi River falling from a height of 253 m (830 ft), making it the second-highest plunge waterfall in India.

    It is also called by alternative names of Gerusoppa falls, Gersoppa Falls and Jogada Gundi.

  • Statement 3 is not correct : Located near Sagara, Shimoga District of Karnataka state.

Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 26

With reference to Ayushman Bharat- Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana, consider the following statements:

1. The on-going centrally sponsored schemes Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana and the Senior Citizen Health Insurance Scheme are subsumed in Ayushman Bharat Mission.

2. It has a defined benefit cover of Rs. 5 lakh per family per year.

3. Beneficiaries covered under the scheme are allowed to take cashless benefits from any of

the public/private empanelled hospitals across the country.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 26
Option (d) is the correct answer.
  • Statement 1 is correct. Ayushman Bharat - National Health Protection Mission has included the on-going centrally sponsored schemes - Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana and the Senior Citizen Health Insurance Scheme under its ambit.

  • Statement 2 is correct. Ayushman Bharat is a National Health Protection Scheme which covers over 10 crore poor and vulnerable families (approximately 50 crore beneficiaries) providing coverage upto 5 lakh rupees per family per year for secondary and tertiary care hospitalization. Statement 3 is correct. Benefits of the scheme are portable across the country and a beneficiary covered under the scheme is allowed to take cashless benefits from any public/private enlisted hospitals across the country.

  • Salient features of Ayushman Bharat include: Ayushman Bharat - National Health Protection Mission will be an entitlement-based scheme with entitlement decided on the basis of deprivation criteria in the SECC database.

  • The beneficiaries can avail benefits in both public and empanelled private facilities.

  • To control costs, the payments for treatment will be done on package rate (to be defined by the Government in advance) basis. One of the core principles of Ayushman Bharat - National Health Protection Mission is to cooperative federalism and flexibility to states.

  • For giving policy directions and fostering coordination between the Centre and States, it is proposed to set up Ayushman Bharat National Health Protection Mission Council (AB- NHPMC) at apex level Chaired by Union Health and Family Welfare Minister. States would need to have State Health Agency (SHA) to implement the scheme.

  • To ensure that the funds reach SHA on time, the transfer of funds from Central Government through Ayushman Bharat - National Health Protection Mission to State Health Agencies may be done through an escrow account directly. In partnership with NITI Ayog, a robust, modular, scalable and interoperable IT platform will be made operational which will entail a paperless, cashless transaction.

Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 27

Consider the following statement regarding National Mission on Government eMarketplace (GeM):

1. It aims to enhance transparency, efficiency and speed in public procurement of agricultural produce only.

2. It also offers offline, end-to-end solution for procurement of commonly used goods and services.

3. It can be used only by Central Public Sector Undertakings (CPSU).

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

Detailed Solution for Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 27
Option (a) is the correct answer.
  • Statement 1 and 2 are incorrect. Government e Marketplace is the National Public Procurement Portal offering an online, end-to-end solution for procurement of common use goods and services by government departments. GeM provides an open, inclusive, transparent and efficient online marketplace.

  • Statement 3 is incorrect. It is used by Central and State Government Ministries and Departments, Central and State Public Sector Undertakings (CPSUs & SPSUs), autonomous institutions and local bodies. The National Mission on GeM (NMG) was launched on 5th September 2018 till 17th October 2018. The objective of the Mission was to accelerate the adoption and use of Procurement by Major Central Ministries, States and UTs and their agencies (including CPSUs/PSUs, Local Bodies) on the GeM platform. The objectives GeM are: Promote inclusiveness by catapulting various categories of sellers and service providers Highlight and communicate the ‘value addition’ by way of transparency and efficiency in public procurement, including corruption free governance. Achieve cashless, contactless and paperless transaction in line with Digital India objectives. Increase overall efficiency leading to significant cost savings on government expenditure in Procurement. Maximizing ease in availability of all types of products and services bought by the Government.

Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 28

Which of the following statements is not correct regarding Planet Venus?

Detailed Solution for Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 28
Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) is working on an orbiter mission to Planet Venus. Option c is correct: Venus is Earth’s closest planetary neighbour which is similar in structure but slightly smaller than Earth, it is the second planet from the sun. Thus, Venus has been called Earth’s twin.
  • Venus is wrapped in a thick, toxic atmosphere filled with carbon dioxide that traps in heat.

  • The temperature of Venus is too high, and its atmosphere is highly acidic, just two of the things that would make life impossible.

  • Surface temperatures reach a scorching 880 degrees Fahrenheit (471 degrees Celsius), hot enough to melt lead.

  • It has no moons and no rings.

  • It spins from east to west, the opposite direction from all other planets in our solar system but the same as Uranus.

  • Venus’ solid surface is a volcanic landscape covered with extensive plains featuring high volcanic mountains and vast ridges.

Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 29

Wilkes Land region, recently seen in the news due to the discovery of a hidden landscape, is related to which of the continents?

Detailed Solution for Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 29

Scientists discovered a hidden landscape ‘frozen in time’ under Antarctic ice.

  • Scientists used satellite photos combined with radio-echo sounding data to create an image of Antarctica’s hidden landscape.
  • It is located in East Antarctica’s Wilkes Land region bordering the Indian Ocean, covering an area roughly the size of Belgium or the U.S. state of Maryland.
  • It is a vast, hidden landscape of hills and valleys carved by ancient rivers. The area spreads across 32,000 square kilometres (12,000 square miles) and was once home to trees, forests and probably animals,
  • It has been “frozen in time” under the Antarctic ice for millions of years
Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 30

With reference to the coastline of Submergence, consider the following statements:

  1. Fiord and Ria coasts are glaciated coasts.

  2. Depth of Fiord coast increases seaward whereas depth of Ria coast is more near the Land.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 30

Coastlines of Submergence:

Ria Coast: During the Ice Age a great deal of water was locked up in ice. The warmer climate that followed melted much of the ice. Subsequently there was an increase in the waters of the oceans and the sea level rose appreciably.

In some cases it is estimated that there was a rise of almost 300 feet! In upland coastal regions where the mountains run at right angles to the sea, that is transverse or discordant to the coast, a rise in the sea level submerges or drowns the lower parts of the valleys to form long, narrow branching inlets separated by narrow head­lands.

Statement 1 is incorrect. They differ from fiords in two important respects, i.e. they are not glaciated, and their depth increases seawards. A Ria coast is typical of the Atlantic type of coast like those of north-west France, north-west Spain, south-west Ireland, Devon and Cornwall. As Rias are generally backed by highland, they support few large commercial ports though they have deep water and offer sheltered anchorage. They have been

extensively used for siting fishing ports and naval bases such as Plymouth and Brest.

Fiord Coast: Fiords are submerged U-shaped glacial troughs. They mark the paths of glaciers that plunged down from the highlands. They have steep walls, often rising straight from the sea, with tributary branches joining the main inlet at right angles.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Due to the greater intensity of ice erosion fiords are deep for great distances inland but there is a shallow section at the seaward end formed by a ridge of rock and called the threshold. Off the fiord coast are numerous islands or skerries which, with the shallow thresholds, sometimes only 200 feet deep, complicate coastal navigation. Fiord coasts are almost entirely confined to the higher latitudes of the temperate regions which

were once glaciated e.g. Norway, Alaska, British Columbia, southern Chile and the South Island of New Zealand.

Some of the large fiords are extremely long and deep. For example, the Sogne Fiord of Norway is 110 miles long, 4 miles wide and almost 4,000 feet deep in its mid-channel. Despite their deep and sheltered water, few large ports are located in fiords. Their mountainous background with poor accessibility inland, attract few settlements.

Agriculture is confined to the deltaic fans, built up where streams flow down to the fjords. The few towns that exist either as fishing or market centres e.g. Trondheim, are only of local importance.

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