UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 1 - UPPSC (UP) MCQ

• The Protection of Human Rights Act of 1993 was enacted to establish mechanisms for the protection of human rights in India. It provides for the establishment of several key bodies to safeguard human rights.
• National Human Rights Commission (NHRC): The NHRC is a statutory public body formed on October 12, 1993. It plays a crucial role in addressing human rights violations at the national level.
• State Human Rights Commissions: The Act also mandates the creation of State Human Rights Commissions in each state. These commissions work towards protecting human rights within their respective states.
• Human Rights Courts: The legislation also provides for the establishment of Human Rights Courts to ensure better protection of human rights and handle legal matters related to human rights violations.
• The primary goal of the Protection of Human Rights Act 1993 is to safeguard human beings from any form of human rights abuses and ensure their well-being.

• Article 21 of Constitution of India: Protection of Life and Personal Liberty
• Article 21 states that "No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to a procedure established by law." This means that every individual has the right to life and personal liberty, and these rights cannot be taken away arbitrarily.
• For example, this article ensures that individuals cannot be imprisoned or have their freedoms restricted without following the due process of law. It acts as a safeguard against arbitrary actions by the state or individuals that may infringe on the fundamental rights of citizens.

Tripura is the Indian state surrounded by Bangladesh on its north, west, and south borders. This geographical location makes Tripura unique as it shares its boundaries with Bangladesh on three sides.
On the eastern side, Tripura is bordered by the states of Mizoram and Assam within India.

Right to Property is a Constitutional Right. The state cannot take possession of it without following due procedure and authority of law. In the State of Haryana v. Mukesh Kumar case (2011), it was held that the property right is not only constitutional or statutory but also a human right. The doctrine of Adverse Possession: The state cannot trespass into the private property of a citizen and then claim ownership of the land in the name of ‘adverse possession. Grabbing private land and then claiming it as its own makes the state an encroacher. In 1967, when the government forcibly took over the land for equitable distribution, the ‘right to private property was still a fundamental right’ under Article 31 of the Constitution. So, the Government came up with the 44th Constitution Amendment in 1978 which made the Right to Property a mere Constitutional Right. So, statement 1 is correct. It was made a Constitutional right under Article 300A. Article 300A requires the state to follow due procedure and authority of law to deprive a person of his or her private property.

John Locke has given Three Natural Rights:

• Right to Life
• Right to Liberty
• Right to Property. Therefore, statement 2 is correct.

Understanding Sustainability

• Definition of Sustainability: Sustainability refers to a process or state that can be maintained indefinitely.
• Utilization of Natural Resources: Natural resources must be used in ways that avoid creating ecological debts through over-exploitation of the earth's carrying and productive capacity.
• Maintenance of Natural Capital: A crucial aspect of sustainability is to ensure the total natural capital stock is maintained at or above the current level.

The correct answer to the statement regarding Sustainability is all of the above (I, II, and III).

Enzymes are Proteins:

• Enzymes are made from amino acids.
• They are composed of hundreds and thousands of amino acids arranged in a specific order.
• Enzymes play a crucial role in catalyzing chemical reactions within cells.
• The term "enzyme" was first coined by German Scientist Wilhelm Kuhne in 1878.
• Enzymes act as biological catalysts, speeding up biochemical reactions.

India's ISRO and Japan's JAXA are collaborating on a joint lunar polar exploration (LUPEX) mission with the goal of sending a lander and rover to the Moon's south pole by 2024. Therefore, statements 1 and 2 are accurate.

• JAXA is expected to provide the under-development H3 launch vehicle and the rover, with ISRO being responsible for the lander. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• The LUPEX mission will showcase new surface exploration technologies related to vehicular transport and lunar night survival for sustainable exploration in Polar Regions. It will also assess the suitability of the lunar polar region for establishing a lunar base for sustainable activities.
• Additionally, the mission aims to demonstrate lunar and planetary surface exploration technologies, such as vehicular transport and overnight survival.

Therefore, statements 1 and 2 only are correct.

The term ‘preamble’ refers to the introduction or preface to the Constitution. It contains the summary or essence of the Constitution.

• The Preamble to the Indian Constitution is based on the ‘Objectives Resolution’, drafted and moved by Pandit Nehru, and adopted by the Constituent Assembly.
• It has been amended by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act (1976), which added three new words —socialist, secular and integrity. It has been amended only once.
• Source of the authority of the Constitution: The Preamble states that the Constitution derives its authority from the people of India.
• Objectives of the Constitution: It specifies justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity as the objectives.

France Introduces Digital Schengen Visas for 2024 Olympics

• Background:

France has taken a significant digital leap by launching fully digital Schengen visas for the 2024 Paris Olympics.

• Implementation:

France has introduced the "Olympic Consulate" system, which allows for the complete digital processing of Schengen visas.

• Significance:

France is the first member of the European Union to adopt this advanced online visa processing system, setting a new standard in visa application procedures.

• Courts have the authority to interpret the Constitution and the powers of different levels of the Government, which is a feature of Indian federalism. Therefore, option (A) is a correct feature of Indian federalism.
• Both the Union Government and State Governments have specified sources of revenue, which is another feature of Indian federalism. Hence, option (B) is also a correct feature.
• The Constitution specifies the powers of both the Union and the States, defining the division of powers, which is a key aspect of Indian federalism. Therefore, option (C) is also a correct feature.
• Indian federalism is primarily based on the principle of the Division of Powers, not the Separation of Powers. Thus, option (D) is not a feature of Indian federalism.

• Mohammed Ali Jinnah opposed Mahatma Gandhi’s association with the Khilafat movement.
• When Jinnah was in England, Gandhi shifted his approach and brought Hindus and Muslims together by supporting a Muslim-only cause, the Khilafat.
• Jinnah strongly disagreed with forming alliances with radical Muslim leaders, believing it would have disastrous consequences for the country.
• The Khilafat movement, which aimed to restore a caliphate spanning multiple countries, began in 1919.
• It gained momentum in India after Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi merged the pan-Islamic movement with the Non-Cooperation Movement.

Bioremediation:

• Bioremediation is a process that uses microorganisms or their enzymes to treat pollutants, offering a biological solution to environmental contamination.
• It involves utilizing the natural abilities of microorganisms to break down or neutralize harmful substances.
• With the vast diversity of microorganisms available, there are numerous ways in which bioremediation can be applied to address pollution issues.
• In the future, microorganisms may even help in tackling challenges like plastic pollution.

Eutrophication:

• Eutrophication refers to the excessive growth of algae in a body of water.
• This phenomenon occurs when an influx of nutrients, such as sewage, agricultural runoff, and fertilizers, promotes algae growth.
• The proliferation of algae can deplete oxygen levels in the water, impacting other aquatic life forms.
• Additionally, the shading caused by algae on the water's surface can hinder the growth of other submerged plants, affecting the entire ecosystem.
• It ultimately leads to a disruption in the balance of the aquatic environment, causing harm to various organisms.
• Phytoplankton is a common example of algae that contribute to eutrophication.

• Nitrification:
  • Nitrification involves the conversion of ammonia to nitrite and then to nitrates.
  • This process is facilitated by specific bacteria and plays a crucial role in the nitrogen cycle.
  • Nitrates serve as essential nutrients for plant growth, as they are a form of nitrogen that plants can utilize.
  • Nitrogen fertilizers, in the form of ammonia, are added to soil to provide plants with necessary nutrients.
  • Without nitrification, plants would not be able to access the nitrogen needed for their growth.
• Ammonification:
  • Ammonification is a process in the nitrogen cycle that involves the conversion of organic nitrogen from dead plants to ammonia by microorganisms.
  • It is essentially the reverse of nitrification, returning nitrogen to the ammonia form.
  • This conversion process is crucial for recycling nitrogen in ecosystems.

The Correct Answer is 1, 2 and 3.

Key Points

• Sultan Sikandar Lodi:
  • He is also commended for introducing efficient administrative machinery. Therefore, Statement 1 is correct.
  • He initiated auditing procedures to oversee the financial accounts of muqtas and walis (governors). Hence, Statement 2 is accurate.
  • Mubarak Khan Lodi (Tuji Khail), the governor of Jaunpur, was the first noble whose finances were scrutinized in 1506. He was found guilty of corruption and subsequently removed from office.
  • Similarly, Khwaja Asghar, a non-Afghan official in charge of Delhi, was jailed for misconduct.
  • The Sultan also revamped the intelligence network to maintain awareness of the Empire's status. Thus, Statement 3 is valid.
  • Nobles refrained from discussing political matters among themselves to avoid displeasing the Sultan.
  • Displaying concern for the populace, the Sultan established charity institutions in the capital and provinces for the welfare of the needy and disabled.
  • Financial assistance was provided to deserving individuals through these charitable organizations.
  • Scholars and poets received patronage and financial support for educational institutions across the Empire.
  • He prohibited the use of any language aside from Persian in governmental offices.
  • This policy prompted many Hindus to learn Persian and gain proficiency in the language swiftly.
  • Consequently, they began overseeing and managing revenue administration.
  • Upon Babur's arrival in India, he was surprised to observe that the revenue department was predominantly staffed by Hindus.
  • Sultan Sikandar Lodi also displayed a keen interest in delivering unbiased justice to all individuals.
  • His endeavors brought peace and prosperity to the Empire.

The Correct Answer is 1 only

Nai-Dhobi Bandh:

• Towards the end of 1919, the first signs of grass-roots peasant activity were evident in the reports of a nai-dhobi band (a form of social boycott) on an estate in the Pratapgarh district.
• The Nai-Dhobi bandh was a form of social boycott witnessed during the Kisan Sabha movement in the United Provinces. This confirms statement 1 is correct.
• The landowners and the sympathizers of the government were denied the basic services of washermen and barbers, leading to a social boycott.
• Names like Thinguri Singh and Durgapal Singh were associated with this movement, but Baba Ramchandra emerged as the main leader, not Gauri Shankar Mishra. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• Baba Ramchandra, originally from Maharashtra, emerged as a leader of the peasants of Avadh in 1920, showcasing significant leadership and organizational skills.
• In June 1920, Baba Ramchandra led a group of tenants from Jaunpur and Pratapgarh districts to Allahabad.
• During this time, he met Gauri Shankar Mishra and Jawaharlal Nehru, urging them to visit the villages to witness the tenants' living conditions.
• Following these visits, Jawaharlal Nehru developed close ties with the Kisan Sabha movement.

The correct answer is June to October.

Details:

• In India, three broad cropping patterns can be identified:

Kharif Crops:

• These crops are sown in the rainy season.
• The rainy season in India is generally from June to September.
• These crops are irrigated by monsoon rainy seasons.
• They are harvested at the end of the monsoon season.
• Examples include Paddy, maize, soybean, groundnut, sugarcane, and cotton.

Rabi Crops:

• They are sown in the winter season.
• They are sown between October till December.
• Harvesting takes place between April and May.
• Examples are wheat, gram, pea, mustard, and linseed.

Zaid Crops:

• These are summer season crops.
• They grow for a short time period between Kharif and Rabi crops (March to June).
• They need warm, dry weather for proper growth.
• Examples include watermelon, muskmelon, cucumber, vegetables, and fodder crops.

The correct answer is option 4.

In News:

• NDTV: Amit Shah To Head Western Zonal Council Meet At Gandhinagar Today.

Key Points:

• They are statutory bodies established by an act of parliament (State reorganization Act of 1956). Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The home minister of the central government is the common chairman of all the zonal councils. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
• Other members include: The Chief Ministers of the States included in each zone act as Vice-Chairman of the Zonal Council for that zone by rotation, each holding office for a period of one year at a time, Chief Minister and two other Ministers as nominated by the Governor from each of the States and two members from Union Territories included in the zone. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.

Composition:

• The Northern Zonal Council: It comprises the States of Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Jammu & Kashmir, Punjab, Rajasthan, National Capital Territory of Delhi, and Union Territory of Chandigarh.
• The Central Zonal Council: It comprises the States of Chhattisgarh, Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, and Madhya Pradesh.
• The Eastern Zonal Council: It comprises the States of Bihar, Jharkhand, Orissa, and West Bengal.
• The Western Zonal Council: It comprises the States of Goa, Gujarat, Maharashtra and the Union Territories of Daman & Diu and Dadra & Nagar Haveli.
• The Southern Zonal Council: It comprises the States of Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu and the Union Territory of Puducherry.

The objectives of the zonal councils are:

• Bringing out national integration
• Arresting the growth of acute State consciousness, regionalism, linguism, and particularistic tendencies.
• Enabling the Centre and the States to co-operate and exchange ideas and experiences.
• Establishing a climate of cooperation among the States for successful and speedy execution of development projects.

The correct answer is Shivalik.

Key Points

• Shivalik is a newer mountain range.
  • The remnant magnetization of siltstones and sandstones indicates that they were deposited 16–5.2 million years ago.
• Shivalik Hills
  • It literally means 'tresses of Shiva’.
  • It is a mountain range of the outer Himalayas.
  • It is 10–50 km wide with an average elevation of 1,500–2,000 m.
  • The Sivalik region is home to the Soanian archaeological culture.
  • These ranges are composed of unconsolidated sediments brought down by rivers from the main Himalayan ranges located farther north.
  • These valleys are covered with thick gravel and alluvium.
  • The longitudinal valley lying between the lesser Himalayas and the Shiwaliks is known as Duns.
  • Dehra Dun, Kotli Dun, and Patli Dun are some of the well-known Duns.
• Aravali
  • The Aravali Hills lie on the western and northwestern margins of the Peninsular plateau.
  • These are highly eroded hills and are found as broken hills.
  • They extend from Gujarat to Delhi in a southwest-northeast direction.
  • The highest peak is Guru Shikhar at 1,722 meters (5,650 ft).
  • It is the oldest geological feature on Earth, having its origin in the Proterozoic era.
• Vindhyan
  • The Vindhyan range is bounded by the Satpura range on the south and the Aravalis on the northwest.
  • The highest point of the Vindhyas is the Sad-bhawna Shikhar ("Goodwill Peak"), which lies 752 meters above the sea level.
  • Several tributaries of the Ganga-Yamuna system originate from the Vindhyas. These include Chambal, Betwa, Dhasan, Ken, Tamsa, Kali Sindh, and Parbati.
• Annamalai
  • It is also known as the Elephant Mountains.
  • These are a range of mountains in the southern Western Ghats of central Kerala and span the border of western Tamil Nadu in Southern India.
  • Anamudi Peak (8,842 feet) lies at the southern end of the range and is the highest peak in southern India.

The correct answer is Hemis National Park.

Key Points

• Hemis National Park -
  • It is the largest notified protected area (largest national park) in India.
  • It is a high-altitude national park in Ladakh, India.
  • It is globally famous for snow leopards.

Additional Information

• ​Sundarbans National Park -
  • It is a national park, tiger reserve, and biosphere reserve in West Bengal, India. 
• Jim Corbett National Park -
  • This national park is the oldest national park in India.
  • It was established in 1936 as Hailey National Park to protect the endangered Bengal tiger.
  • It is located near Ramnagar town of Nainital district of Uttarakhand.​
• Gir National Park -
  • It is a national park and wildlife sanctuary located in the state of Gujarat, India.
  • It is known to be the only habitat of lions in Asia.

Upright Pyramid of Numbers:

• The upright pyramid of numbers refers to the gradual decrease in the number of individual organisms from lower trophic levels to higher trophic levels in an ecosystem.
• For example, ecosystems like grasslands and ponds typically exhibit an upright pyramid of numbers.
• In the provided image, it is evident that the producers are the most numerous, while tertiary consumers are the least numerous, supporting the concept of an upright pyramid of numbers.

The Founder of Bijapur Sultanate

• Upon the fragmentation of the Bahmani Kingdom, the sultanate of Bijapur was founded by Yusuf Adil Shah.
• Yusuf Adil Shah, the son of the Sultan of Turkey, was purchased by Mahmud Gavan.
• He showed valor and loyalty in protecting the sultanate, which earned him the governorship of Bijapur.
• Yusuf Adil Shah constructed Arkilla fort, also known as Bijapur Fort, and Faroukh Mahal. The planners for these structures were brought from Persia, Turkey, and Rome.

Additional Information

• The Bahmani kingdom ruled between 1347-1526 AD.
• Founded by Alauddin Bahaman Shah (Hasan Gangu) in 1347, with Gulbarga as its capital.
• It was a Persianised Muslim state in the Deccan region of South India and one of the prominent medieval Indian Kingdoms.
• In 1424, Ahmad Wali Shah shifted the capital from Gulbarga to Bidar.
• The Bahmani Kingdom flourished under Muhammad Shah III's reign and extended from the Arabian Sea to the Bay of Bengal, encompassing the entire Deccan region.

Analysis of Forest Types Based on Features

• Tropical Evergreen Forests:
  • Also known as tropical rainforests.
  • Found near the equator and close to the tropics.
  • Tree leaves do not shed entirely, hence known as evergreen.
  • Common trees include rosewood, ebony, mahogany.
• Tropical Deciduous Forests:
  • Monsoon forests found in regions like India, northern Australia, and central America.
  • Trees shed leaves in the dry season for water conservation.
  • Hardwood trees like sal, teak, neem, and shisham are prevalent.
• Temperate Deciduous Forests:
  • More common in higher latitudes.
  • Found in regions like the northeastern USA, China, New Zealand, Chile, and coastal Western Europe.
  • Leaves are shed in the dry season.
  • Tree species include oak, ash, beech, among others.

Additional Information

• Tropical Evergreen Forests:
  • These forests are also called tropical rainforests.
  • These thick forests occur in the regions near the equator and close to the tropics.
  • The trees in these forests do not shed their leaves altogether. This is the reason they are called evergreen.
  • Hardwood trees like rosewood, ebony, mahogany are common here.
• Tropical Deciduous Forests:
  • Tropical deciduous are the monsoon forests found in the large part of India, northern Australia and in central America.
  • The trees in these forests shed their leaves in the dry season to conserve water.
  • The hardwood trees found in these forests are sal, teak, neem, and shisham.
• Temperate Deciduous Forests:
  • As we go towards higher latitudes, there are more temperate deciduous forests.
  • These are found in the northeastern part of USA, China, New Zealand, Chile and also found in the coastal regions of Western Europe.
  • They shed their leaves in the dry season.
  • The common trees are oak, ash, beech, etc.

The Varieties of Groundnut

• RS-1, RG-141, and Chandra

Indian Groundnuts are Available in Different Varieties

• Indian groundnuts are available in different varieties: Bold or Runner, Java or Spanish, and Red Natal.
• The main Groundnut varieties produced in India are Kadiri-2, Kadiri-3, BG-1, BG-2, Kuber, GAUG-1, GAUG-10, PG-1, T-28, T-64, Chandra, Chitra, Kaushal, Parkash, Amber, etc.
• The Major Growing States.
• ​​Gujarat, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Orissa, and Uttar Pradesh.

Additional Information

• Andhra Pradesh 
  • In Andhra Pradesh groundnut covered an area of 9,23,405 hectares in Kharif- in 2016.
  • ​The recommended variety ‘Kadiri-6’, a Spanish type, has been found to be the most popular (80%) among the farmers interviewed, and another Spanish variety ‘Narayani’, was found to be the second most popular (7%). ‘JL 24’, ‘TMV 2’, ‘TAG 24’, ‘Kadiri 9’, and ‘Kadiri Haritandhra’- are the other Spanish types sown by the farmers.
• Best Varieties of Groundnut in India
  • T 64: It is a spreading variety popularly grown in the state of Uttar Pradesh.
  • Chitra: This is again a quite popular variety of Uttar Pradesh with a maturity period of 108-112 days.

The correct answer is Right to Protection of Life: Article 20.

Key Points

• Article 21 of the Indian constitution states that No one can be deprived of their life or personal liberty except according to the procedure established by law.
• Article 20 of the Constitution provides for protection in respect of conviction for offenses.
• No one can be convicted for an act that was not an offense at the time of its commission, and no one can be given punishment greater than what was provided in the law prevalent at the time of its commission.
• Additionally, no one can be prosecuted and punished for the same offense more than once and cannot be forced to give witness against themselves.

Additional Information

• Article 19 guarantees six freedoms:
  • Freedom of speech and expression
  • Freedom to assemble
  • Freedom to form associations/unions/cooperative societies
  • Freedom to move freely
  • Freedom of residence
  • Freedom of profession
• Article 32 of the Indian Constitution has been described as the ‘heart and soul’ of the Indian Constitution by Dr. B. R. Ambedkar.
  • It gives a citizen the right to approach the Supreme Court to get redressal for any violation of fundamental rights.
  • It is also known as the Right to Constitutional Remedies.
• Article 15 states that "The State shall not discriminate against any citizen solely based on religion, race, caste, sex, birthplace, or any combination of these factors."
  • Discrimination in any form is prohibited under this article.
  • No citizen will be subject to any responsibility, limitation, restriction, or condition based solely on race, religion, caste, place of birth, sex, or any combination of these factors concerning: Accessibility to public locations, use of state-maintained tanks, wells, ghats, and other public-access tanks, wells, and ghats.
  • Despite these provisions, special considerations have been made for women, children, and those from lower socio-economic backgrounds.
  • Article 15 is part of the Right to Equality (Article 14 - 18).
  • The Right to Equality ensures that everyone has equal rights, regardless of religion, gender, caste, ethnicity, or place of birth.
  • It guarantees equal job opportunities in the government and protects against discrimination in employment by the state based on caste, religion, and other factors.
  • The abolition of titles, as well as untouchability, are all encompassed within this right.

Key Points

• To achieve an image of the same size as the object in a concave mirror, the object should be positioned at the center of curvature of the mirror.
• Center of Curvature:
  • It is the point on the mirror equidistant from all points on the mirror's surface.
  • When an object is placed at the center of curvature, the light rays from the object are reflected back and converge at the same point on the other side of the mirror.
  • The image formed at this point is real, inverted, and of the same size as the object.

Additional Information

Important Points

Concave Mirror:

• Part of a spherical mirror that reflects light from the concave side.
• A converging mirror that brings incident rays to a focal point.

When the object is at the Center of Curvature:

Characteristics of Image Formed:

• Position of the image - At the Center of Curvature
• Nature of image - Real & Inverted
• Size - Same as that of the object

The Correct Answer and Explanation

• Concept:
  • Petroleum is a natural liquid fossil fuel found underground, consisting of a complex mix of hydrocarbons - organic compounds with carbon and hydrogen atoms.

Explanation:

CNG (Compressed Natural Gas):

• CNG is mainly methane gas sourced from natural gas reserves, not petroleum. It is compressed from natural gas extracted from underground reservoirs, serving as a fuel for various applications, including vehicles.

LPG (Liquefied Petroleum Gas):

• LPG, a mix of hydrocarbon gases like propane and butane, is obtained during the refining of petroleum. It is widely used for heating, cooking, and powering vehicles.

Diesel:

• Diesel fuel, commonly used in diesel engines, is derived from crude oil during the refining process. It consists of various hydrocarbons, including alkanes, cycloalkanes, and aromatic hydrocarbons.

Coal Gas:

• Coal gas, or town gas, is a flammable gas produced by coal's destructive distillation. Historically used for heating and lighting, it is now less common. Coal gas is distinct from petroleum, derived from coal rather than petroleum reserves.

In summary, LPG and diesel are obtained from petroleum, while CNG and coal gas are sourced from natural gas and coal, respectively.

The Appointment of Prime Minister and Ministers

• The Prime Minister and the other Ministers of the Indian Union are appointed by the President under Article 75 of the Constitution of India.
• The Part V of the Constitution (Union) deals with President, Vice-President, Council of Ministers (COM) headed by Prime Minister and Attorney General.
• As per Article 75, the President appoints the Prime Minister, and the other Ministers are appointed by the President on the recommendation of the Prime Minister.
• The total number of ministers, including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15% of the total number of members of the People's House in the Council of Ministers.
• The ministers shall hold office at the President's pleasure.

The primary aim of enforcing penalties on parents who allow minors to drive is to reduce accidents caused by underage driving. Research shows that a significant percentage of road accident fatalities involve young drivers, making it crucial to hold guardians accountable for such actions. This initiative is part of a broader campaign to promote road safety and awareness about the dangers of underage driving.

The global semiconductor ecosystem is expected to generate revenues exceeding USD 950 billion for the fiscal year 2022. This significant figure highlights the growing importance of semiconductors in various industries, including electronics and technology, driving investments and innovations in this crucial sector.

Five new airports are set to be inaugurated in Uttar Pradesh. This expansion will enhance the state’s connectivity and is part of a larger initiative to improve infrastructure and facilitate economic growth. The addition of these airports will not only support local travel but also promote tourism and business opportunities in the region.

Uttar Pradesh aims to achieve a $1 trillion economy by the year 2027. This ambitious target reflects the state’s strategic planning and focus on economic growth across various sectors, including agriculture, MSMEs, and services. Achieving this goal will require significant advancements and sustained efforts from all sectors of the economy.