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RPSC Senior Grade II (Social Studies) Mock Test - 1 - REET MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test RPSC Senior Teacher Grade II Mock Test Series 2026 - RPSC Senior Grade II (Social Studies) Mock Test - 1

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RPSC Senior Grade II (Social Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 1

Which of the following is an Upanishad of Rigveda?

Detailed Solution for RPSC Senior Grade II (Social Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 1

The correct answer is Kaushitaki Upanishad.

Key Points

  • Aitareya Upanishads, Kaushitaaki Upanishad are upnishad of Rigveda. ​
  • Other upnishads associated with Vedas.

Additional Information

  • Upanishad means to learn.
  • It deals with philosophy, metaphysics, spirituality, etc.
  • They are also known as “Vedanta” meaning the end of the Vedas” for they denote the last phase of the Vedic period and reveal the ultimate aim of the Vedas.
  • They are 108 in number.
  • Upanishads mainly describe the Atma, Parmatma, and Salvation.
  • The earliest Upanishads are “Brihadaranyaka” and “Chanddogya” written in prose.
  • Their philosophy is actually the realization of “Brahman”.
    • The ultimate reality of the universe.
    • The recognition that the individual soul is identical with that and attainment of salvation in this recognition.
    • Knowledge can be a medium to attain Salvation.
RPSC Senior Grade II (Social Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 2

The call for ‘renunciation of (all) voluntary associations with the (British) Government’ was given during

Detailed Solution for RPSC Senior Grade II (Social Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 2

The correct answer is Non-Cooperation Movement.

Key Points

  • Non-Cooperation Movement
    • On 1 August 1920, Non-Cooperation Movement was announced formally.
    • This was a bereaved day when early in the morning, the news of the death of Bal Gangadhar Tilak arrived.
    • Gandhi and a crowd of around 2 Lakh people paid their respect to this “Maker of Modern India”, The Movement started with strikes and processions all over India.
    • It was the Rowlatt Satyagraha that made Gandhiji a truly national leader.
    • Embodied by its success, Gandhiji called for a campaign of “non-cooperation” with British rule.
    • Indians who wished colonialism to end were asked to stop attending schools, colleges, and law courts, and not pay taxes.
    • In sum, they were asked to adhere to a “renunciation of (all) voluntary association with the (British ) Government”. Hence, Option 1 is correct.
    • On 4 September 1920, Congress met at Calcutta in a special session.
    • This special session was presided by Lala Lajpat Rai. In this session, Gandhi wrongly projected that if the Non-cooperation movement gets successful, Swaraj could be attained in one year. This was something immediately repudiated by CR Das.
    • In December 1920, Congress met once again in the Nagpur Session.
    • This time the differences of CR das had melted away.
    • He moved the main resolution of Non-cooperation. A program of the surrender of titles, the boycott of schools, courts, and councils, the boycott of foreign goods, the promotion maintenance of Hindu-Muslim unity, and strict non-violence was adopted.
    • Nagpur Session 1920 At the Nagpur session in December 1920, some crucial changes were made in the organization of the Congress, so that it becomes a real political party.
    • These changes were mooted by Gandhi, but they confused Jinnah and Jinnah left the party, a beginning of the division that later would make him Qaide-i-Azam of Pakistan.
RPSC Senior Grade II (Social Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 3

"The ancient coastal city belongs to the Indus Valley Civilisation period which had dominant rice production. It is recognized for unique town planning than other Indus Valley Sites. It was the oldest dock and busiest trade centre.”

Detailed Solution for RPSC Senior Grade II (Social Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 3

Lothal’s town plan:

  • The city is divided into 6 sections having a wide platform of earthen bricks. (Different from other Harappa and Mohenjodaro sites).
  • Rice production is the highest (Another site is Rangpur).
  • The oldest dock as evidence was found of trade with Egyptian pharaohs and Iraqi Sumerians.
  • Alamgirpur is not a coastal city. It is in UP & famous for cotton.
  • Sutkagendor is in Pakistan.
  • Surkotada is a coastal city at Kuchh Gujrat but no evidence of Rice production.
  • Hence, options A, B & D doesn’t satisfy the requirements.
RPSC Senior Grade II (Social Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 4
Where was the capital of Shivaji Maharaj?
Detailed Solution for RPSC Senior Grade II (Social Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 4

The correct answer is Raigarh.

Key Points

  • Raigarh was the capital of Shivaji.
  • Shivaji:
    • Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj, great Maratha ruler was born on 19 February 1630 at Shivneri Fort in Pune District in the present-day state of Maharashtra.
    • Shivaji was given excellent training in military warfare and administration.
    • He was married for the first time in 1640 to Saibai.
    • Shivaji displayed his military zeal for the first time in 1645 when as a teenager.
    • He successfully got control of the Torna Fort which was under Bijapur.
    • He also acquired the Kondana Fort.
    • Both these forts were under Adil Shah of Bijapur.
    • Shah then got Shahaji imprisoned in a bid to contain Shivaji.
    • Some accounts say that Shivaji surrendered these forts to get his father released.
    • Shahaji died in 1664-65 in an accident.
    • After this, Shivaji resumed his raids and extended his territories.
RPSC Senior Grade II (Social Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 5
An additional rank to the mansab system called Mashrut, was created by which of the following rulers of the Mughal empire?
Detailed Solution for RPSC Senior Grade II (Social Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 5

The correct answer is ​Aurangazeb.

Key Points

  • Aurangzeb continued with all the changes in the mansab system by his predecessors and created an additional rank called Mashrut (conditional).
    • This was an attempt to increase the sawar rank of the mansabdar temporarily.
    • Aurangzeb added another deduction called Khurak-idawwab, towards meeting the cost for a feed of animals in the imperial stables.

Additional Information

  • Mansabdari was a unique system devised by the Mughals in India.
  • The mansabdari system, evolved by Akbar with certain changes and modifications, was the basis of civil and military administrations under the Mughals.
  • The word mansab means a place or position. The mansab awarded to an individual fixed both his status in the official hierarchy and also his salary.
  • It also fixed the number of armed retainers the holders of mansab was to maintain.
  • The system was formulated to streamline the rank of the nobles, fix their salary and specify the number of cavalries to be maintained by them.
  • Under the mansab system ranks were expressed in numerical terms.
  • Akbar: Abul Fazl states that Akbar had established 66 grades of Mansabdars ranging from commanders of 10 horsemen to 10,000 horsemen, although only 33 grades have been mentioned by him.
    • Later the rank of mansabdar came to be denoted by two numbers - Zat and-Sawar.
  • Jahangir introduced a new provision in the Sawar rank.
    • According to it a part of Sawar rank was termed du-aspa, sih-aspa in case of select mansabdars.
    • Thus the mansabdar was to maintain double the number of Sawars for the du-aspa sih-aspa category and was paid for it. Jahangir probably introduced this provision to promote nobles of his confidence and strengthen them militarily.
  • Shahjahan introduced the month-scale in the mansabdari system to compensate the gap between Jama (estimated income) and hasil (actual realisation).
    • The mansabdar’s salary was fixed by a method called month-scale.
    • Thus, if a Jagir yielded only half of the Jama, it was called Shashmaha (six monthly), if it yielded only one fourth, it was called Sihmaha (three monthly).
RPSC Senior Grade II (Social Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 6
Who was the Viceroy when the Simon Commission visited India?
Detailed Solution for RPSC Senior Grade II (Social Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 6

The correct answer is option 3, i.e. Lord Irwin.

  • Simon Commission was appointed by the British government in 1927 and visited India in 1928 during the tenure of Viceroy Lord Irwin (1926 - 1931).
  • Lord Chelmsford was the Viceroy during 1916 - 1921.
  • Lord Reading was the Viceroy during 1921 - 1926.
  • Lord Wellington was the Viceroy during 1931 - 1936.
RPSC Senior Grade II (Social Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 7
Choose the correct combination of Rabi Crops?
Detailed Solution for RPSC Senior Grade II (Social Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 7

India has three cropping seasons — rabi, kharif and zaid.

  • Kharif crops are grown with the onset of monsoon in different parts of the country and these are harvested in September-October. Important crops grown during this season are paddy, maize, jowar, bajra, tur (arhar), moong, urad, cotton, jute, groundnut and soyabean.
  • Rabi crops are sown in winter from October to December and harvested in summer from April to June. Some of the important rabi crops are wheat, barley, peas, gram and mustard.
  • In between the rabi and the Kharif seasons, there is a short season during the summer months known as the Zaid season. Some of the crops produced during ‘zaid’ are watermelon, muskmelon, and cucumber.

Additional Information

  • Wheat:
  • This is the second most important cereal crop. It is the main food crop, in the north and north-western part of the country.
  • This rabi crop requires a cool growing season and bright sunshine at the time of ripening.
  • It requires 50 to 75 cm of annual rainfall evenly distributed over the growing season.
  • There are two important wheat-growing zones in the country – the Ganga-Satluj plains in the northwest and black soil region of the Deccan. The major wheat-producing states are Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Rajasthan and parts of Madhya Pradesh.
  • Oil Seeds (Mustard): In 2008 India was the second-largest producer of groundnut in the world after China.
  • Main oil seeds produced in India are groundnut, mustard, coconut, sesamum (til), soybean, castor seeds, cotton seeds, linseed and sunflower. Most of these are edible and used as cooking mediums.
  • Linseed and mustard are rabi crops. Castor seed is grown both as rabi and Kharif crop.
  • Barley: It is a major cereal grain grown in temperate climates globally. It is a rabi crop.
RPSC Senior Grade II (Social Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 8
Which among the following statements is incorrect with respect to pressure belts?
Detailed Solution for RPSC Senior Grade II (Social Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 8

Option 3 is NOT correct.

Key Points

  • Subtropical high-pressure belt:
    • It extends from the tropics to about 35° latitudes in both hemispheres.
    • The ascending air of the equatorial region is deflected towards the poles due to the earth's rotation.
    • After becoming cold and heavy, the air descends in these regions and gets piled up, which results in high pressure.
    • This zone is characterized by anti-cyclonic conditions, which lead to atmospheric stability and aridity.
    • Wind in this zone is known as tropical easterlies i.e northeast trade winds in the northern hemisphere and south east trade winds in the southern hemisphere.
  • Equatorial low-pressure belt:
    • This belt extends from the equator 10° N to 10° S latitudes.
    • The intertropical convergence zone (ITCZ) is known as the region of convergence near the equator because the winds flowing from subtropical high-pressure belts converge here.
    • This low-pressure belt is also known as doldrums because it is a zone of total calm without any winds.
    • Due to high temperatures, a low-pressure belt is created in the equatorial region.
    • This gives rise to air convergence in the area.
  • Sub-Polar Low-Pressure Belts:
    • They extend between 45° N and the Arctic Circle in the northern hemisphere and between 45° S and the Antarctic circle in the southern hemisphere.
    • Winds coming from the sub tropical and the polar high belts converge here to produce cyclonic storms or low-pressure conditions due to the formation of fronts.
    • This zone of convergence is also known as the polar front. This region is marked by violent storms in winter.
    • The winds developed in this region are called westerlies.
    • Depending on the latitudes, Westerlies are also known as Roaring Forties, Furious Fifties, and Shrieking Sixties.
RPSC Senior Grade II (Social Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 9
In the study of the solar system, we heard the term Meteoroids. What does it exactly mean?
Detailed Solution for RPSC Senior Grade II (Social Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 9

The correct answer is these are small pieces of rocks, moving around the Sun.

Key Points

  • The Solar System consists of eight planets, satellites and some other celestial bodies known as asteroids and meteoroids.
  • Meteoroids are small pieces of rocks, moving around the Sun.
  • They orbit the sun among the rocky inner planets, as well as the gas giants that make up the other planets.
  • Sometimes these meteoroids come near the Earth and tend to drop upon it.
  • During this process, due to friction with the air they get heated up and burn.
  • Sometimes a meteor without being completely burnt, falls on the Earth and creates a hollow.

Thus, we can say that meteoroids are small pieces of rocks that move around the Sun.

RPSC Senior Grade II (Social Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 10

When are the Tides highest?

Detailed Solution for RPSC Senior Grade II (Social Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 10

The correct answer is When Sun, Moon and Earth are aligned.Key Points

Tides

  • Tides are caused by the gravitational pull of the moon and sun on the ocean.
  • The difference between high tide and low tide is called the tidal range.
  • The biggest tidal range is found in the Bay of Fundy, Canada where sea level rises and falls as much as 16 m (53 feet) in just over 6 hours.
  • The smallest tidal ranges are less than 1 m (3 feet).
  • The highest tides, called spring tides, are formed when the earth, sun, and moon are lined up in a row. Hence option 3 is correct.
  • This happens every two weeks during a new moon or full moon.
  • Smaller tides, called neap tides, are formed when the earth, sun, and moon form a right angle.
  • This causes the sun and moon to pull the water in two different directions.
  • Neap tides happen during a quarter or three-quarter moon.
  • During equinoxes, the Sun exerts a stronger pull on the Earth than the rest of the year, because of the alignment between the sun and the equator.
  • Consequently, the water surface is strongly attracted by the Sun, which accentuates tides, we call them “great tides”.
  • The equinox happens twice a year: the Spring Equinox happens around the 20th of March whereas the Autumn Equinox takes place around the 22nd of September, depending on the year.
  • If on top of that there is also an alignment of the Moon with the Earth and Sun, then tides will get even stronger as the water will be twice as pulled by these two stars.
  • On the contrary, around the summer solstice (the longest day of the year ) and the winter solstice (the shortest day), tides get weaker. Indeed, the Earth is tilted to the Sun, the exerted pull thus gets a lot weaker and tidal coefficients get lower.
RPSC Senior Grade II (Social Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 11
Which of the following are the recent landforms among the major physiographic division of India?
Detailed Solution for RPSC Senior Grade II (Social Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 11

The correct answer is the Himalayas and the Northern Plains.

Key Points

  • The Himalayan range is one of the youngest mountain ranges on the planet and consists mostly of uplifted sedimentary and metamorphic rock.
  • Its formation is a result of a continental collision or orogeny along the convergent boundary (Main Himalayan Thrust) between the Indo-Australian Plate and the Eurasian Plate.
  • Northern plains are the youngest physiographic feature in India. They lie to the south of the Shivaliks, separated by the Himalayan Frontal Fault.
  • The southern boundary is a wavy irregular line along the northern edge of the Peninsular India. On the eastern side, the plains are bordered by the Purvanchal hills.
Additional Information
  • The Peninsular plateau is a tableland composed of the old crystalline, igneous and metamorphic rocks. It was formed due to the breaking and drifting of the Gondwana land and thus, making it a part of the oldest landmass.
  • The coastal plain is flat, low-lying land adjacent to the sea coast. The Coastal Plains of India lie on either side of the Peninsular Plateau, along the western and eastern coasts of India.
  • The major island groups of India are the Andaman and Nicobar Archipelago (A chain of islands similar in origin) in the Bay of Bengal and Lakshadweep islands in the Arabian Sea.
RPSC Senior Grade II (Social Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 12
Which region in India receives less rainfall in summer, but heavy rainfall in winter season due to the retreating north easterly winds?
Detailed Solution for RPSC Senior Grade II (Social Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 12

The correct answer is Eastern coastal region.

Key Points

  • The Eastern coastal region of India, particularly the Tamil Nadu coast, receives substantial rainfall during the winter months.
  • This rainfall is primarily due to the retreating North-Easterly monsoon winds, which pick up moisture from the Bay of Bengal and bring it to the eastern coast.
  • Unlike the summer monsoon, which affects the western coastal region more, the retreating monsoon impacts the eastern coast significantly.
  • This pattern results in a unique climatic condition where the Eastern coastal region experiences less rainfall during the summer but heavy rainfall during the winter.

Additional Information

  • Monsoon Winds
    • Monsoon winds are seasonal winds that bring significant rainfall to parts of the world, including India.
    • They are characterized by a reversal in wind direction and are typically divided into two main phases: the South-West Monsoon and the North-East Monsoon.
    • The South-West Monsoon occurs from June to September and brings heavy rainfall to most parts of India.
    • The North-East Monsoon, also known as the retreating monsoon, occurs from October to December and brings rainfall to the eastern coast of India.
  • Retreating Monsoon
    • The retreating monsoon refers to the period when the South-West monsoon winds start withdrawing from the Indian subcontinent.
    • During this period, the North-East Monsoon winds take over, bringing rainfall to the eastern coast of India.
    • This period is crucial for regions like Tamil Nadu, which receive the bulk of their annual rainfall during this time.
  • Bay of Bengal
    • The Bay of Bengal is the northeastern part of the Indian Ocean, bounded by India, Bangladesh, and Myanmar.
    • It plays a crucial role in the monsoon system, particularly for the North-East Monsoon.
    • The retreating monsoon winds pick up moisture from the Bay of Bengal, leading to significant rainfall along the eastern coast of India.
RPSC Senior Grade II (Social Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 13
The surface waves of an earthquake are-
Detailed Solution for RPSC Senior Grade II (Social Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 13

The correct answer is L waves.

In News

  • In Feb 2023, earthquake of magnitude 7.8 killed 95, knocked down buildings in Turkey.

Key Points

  • The slowest (and latest to arrive on seismograms) are surface waves, such as the L wave.
  • L waves are named for the Cambridge mathematician A.E.H. Love who first described them. The surface waves are generally the largest recorded from an earthquake.
  • Surface waves travel more slowly through Earth's material at the planet's surface and are predominantly lower frequency than body waves.
  • They are easily distinguished on a seismogram.

Additional Information

  • Shallow earthquakes produce stronger surface waves; the strength of the surface waves is reduced in deeper earthquakes.
  • P waves, or Primary waves, are the first waves to arrive at a seismograph. P waves are the fastest seismic waves and can move through solid, liquid, or gas. They leave behind a trail of compressions and rarefactions on the medium they move through. P waves are also called pressure waves for this reason.
  • S waves also called secondary waves and shear waves, are the second waves to hit the seismographs. They are transverse waves, which means that the motion is perpendicular to the direction of wave propagation.

Thus, the surface waves of earthquakes are L waves.

RPSC Senior Grade II (Social Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 14
Which one of the following is not a function of Commercial Bank ?
Detailed Solution for RPSC Senior Grade II (Social Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 14

The correct answer is - Deciding bank rate policy

Key Points

  • Deciding bank rate policy
    • This function is typically performed by the central bank of a country, such as the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in India or the Federal Reserve in the United States.
    • The central bank regulates the monetary policy, including setting the bank rate, which is the rate at which commercial banks can borrow money from the central bank.
    • Commercial banks implement these policies but do not have the authority to decide the bank rate policy themselves.

Additional Information

  • Providing project finance
    • Commercial banks offer project financing to support the establishment, expansion, and modernization of projects across various sectors.
    • They provide long-term loans to businesses for project development, which includes infrastructure, industrial, and service sector projects.
  • Selling mutual funds
    • Many commercial banks have subsidiaries or alliances with mutual fund companies, allowing them to sell mutual fund products to their customers.
    • This helps banks to diversify their product offerings and provide customers with investment opportunities beyond traditional savings and fixed deposits.
  • Settlement of payments on behalf of the customers
    • Commercial banks facilitate the settlement of payments for their customers through various services like fund transfers, payment gateways, and clearing of checks.
    • They ensure smooth and efficient transaction processing, which is crucial for the functioning of the economy.
RPSC Senior Grade II (Social Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 15

Skewness in a distribution is measured by which of the following methods?

Detailed Solution for RPSC Senior Grade II (Social Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 15

The correct answer is 'Karl Pearson.'

Key Points

  • Karl Pearson’s Measure of Skewness:
    • Karl Pearson’s coefficient of skewness is one of the most commonly used methods to measure the degree of skewness in a distribution.
    • This method compares the mean and mode of the distribution to determine the skewness. If the mean is greater than the mode, the distribution is positively skewed, and if the mode is greater than the mean, the distribution is negatively skewed.
    • The formula for Karl Pearson’s coefficient of skewness is:
    • Skewness = (Mean – Mode) / Standard Deviation
    • This coefficient helps identify whether the data distribution is symmetrical, positively skewed (longer tail on the right), or negatively skewed (longer tail on the left).

Additional Information

  • Option 1: Scatter diagram.
    • This is incorrect. A scatter diagram is used to show the relationship between two variables and does not measure skewness.
  • Option 2: Spearman.
    • This is incorrect. Spearman’s rank correlation measures the strength and direction of the association between two ranked variables, not skewness.
  • Option 3: Bowley.
    • This is incorrect. Bowley’s coefficient of skewness is another method to measure skewness, but Karl Pearson’s method is more commonly used and mentioned in the question.

Important Points

  • Skewness measures the asymmetry of the probability distribution of a real-valued random variable about its mean.
  • Karl Pearson’s method provides a quantitative measure of how much the distribution deviates from symmetry.
RPSC Senior Grade II (Social Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 16
Anti dumping duty is applicable to
Detailed Solution for RPSC Senior Grade II (Social Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 16

The correct answer is: Discourage sale of foreign goods at prices below the domestic prices.

Anti-dumping duty is a protectionist tariff imposed by a domestic government on foreign imports that it believes are priced below fair market value. It is implemented to prevent dumping, where foreign companies sell goods at lower prices in a domestic market, often to drive out competition or disrupt local industries.

Key Points

  • Purpose of Anti-Dumping Duty:
    • It aims to protect domestic industries from foreign competitors who sell goods at unfairly low prices.
    • Helps in maintaining fair competition in the domestic market.
  • Protection of Domestic Industry:
    • Anti-dumping duty ensures that domestic producers are not driven out of business by artificially low prices of foreign goods.
  • WTO Guidelines:
    • The World Trade Organization (WTO) allows countries to impose anti-dumping measures when dumping causes injury to the domestic industry.

Additional Information

  • Determining Dumping:
    • Dumping occurs when the export price of a product is lower than its domestic price in the exporting country.
  • Role of Government:
    • The government investigates dumping claims before imposing anti-dumping duties to ensure the measures are justified.
RPSC Senior Grade II (Social Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 17
Simultaneous increase in unemployment and inflation is called
Detailed Solution for RPSC Senior Grade II (Social Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 17

The correct answer is - Stagflation

Key Points

  • Stagflation
    • Stagflation is an economic condition characterized by a simultaneous increase in inflation and unemployment rates.
    • This situation presents a dilemma for economic policy as measures to reduce inflation may exacerbate unemployment and vice versa.
    • Stagflation was first recognized during the 1970s when many developed economies experienced rapid inflation and rising unemployment rates.
    • It challenges the traditional Phillips curve, which suggests an inverse relationship between inflation and unemployment.

Additional Information

  • Hyperinflation
    • Hyperinflation is an extremely rapid or out-of-control inflation, where prices increase very quickly as a currency loses its value.
    • It is typically caused by an excessive supply of money in the economy, often due to government actions like printing more money.
    • Historical examples include Germany in the 1920s and Zimbabwe in the 2000s.
  • Deflation
    • Deflation is the opposite of inflation; it refers to a decrease in the general price level of goods and services.
    • It can lead to reduced consumer spending, as people anticipate further price drops, potentially resulting in economic stagnation.
  • Natural Rate of Unemployment
    • The Natural Rate of Unemployment is the level of unemployment consistent with a stable rate of inflation.
    • It includes frictional and structural unemployment but excludes cyclical unemployment.
RPSC Senior Grade II (Social Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 18
The absence of money illusion means that
Detailed Solution for RPSC Senior Grade II (Social Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 18

The correct answer is - as the price level doubles, the demand for money doubles

Key Points

  • Absence of Money Illusion
    • Money illusion refers to the tendency of people to think of currency in nominal, rather than real, terms. In simple terms, it means they might overlook the effects of inflation or deflation.
    • The absence of money illusion means that people are fully aware of the real value of money, taking into account changes in price levels.
    • When the price level doubles, the real value of money halves. Therefore, to maintain the same real balance, people would need to hold twice the nominal amount of money.

Additional Information

  • Demand for Money and Other Factors
    • Money Supply: An increase in the money supply without a corresponding increase in demand can lead to inflation, but it doesn’t directly double the demand for money.
    • Interest Rate: The demand for money is inversely related to interest rates. When interest rates increase, people prefer to save or invest rather than hold money.
    • Real Income: An increase in real income usually increases the demand for money, but the relationship is not necessarily a simple doubling as in the case of price levels.
RPSC Senior Grade II (Social Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 19

Consider the following statements regarding India's trade performance in the first nine months of FY25:
1. India's total exports (merchandise and services) grew by 6% YoY, reaching USD 602.6 billion, with non-petroleum, non-gems and jewellery exports growing by 9.1%.
2. India's total imports during this period stood at USD 682.2 billion, registering a 5.2% YoY growth, driven by steady domestic demand.
Which of the following is correct?

Detailed Solution for RPSC Senior Grade II (Social Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 19

The correct answer is Only Statement 1 is correct

In News

  • India's total exports reached USD 602.6 billion in the first nine months of FY25, showing a 6% YoY growth. Statement 1 is correct

Key Points

  • Non-petroleum exports grew by 7.1%, while non-petroleum, non-gems & jewellery exports grew by 9.1%, indicating a broad-based expansion.
  • Total imports rose to USD 682.2 billion, registering a 6.9% YoY growth, driven by strong domestic demand. Statement 2 is incorrect
  • Merchandise imports increased by 5.2%, contributing to a widening trade deficit of USD 210.8 billion between April-December 2024.
  • India is the 6th largest exporter of textiles and apparel, contributing 2.3% to GDP and 12% to exports, with cotton-based products dominating.
  • The textile sector must shift to vertical integration and invest in R&D and sustainable production techniques to remain competitive.
  • The MMF (Man-Made Fiber) sector offers high growth potential, as India's current MMF global share is 9.2%, with opportunities to compete with Vietnam, China, and Taiwan.
  • Government initiatives like PLI, PM-MITRA parks, and FTAs aim to boost the textile sector, especially in MMF-based production.
  • India has successfully diversified its export markets, ensuring broader trade resilience across Principal Commodities (PCs).
  • Service exports remain a key strength, with India holding a 10.2% global share in Telecommunications, Computer & Information Services and 7.2% in Other Business Services.
  • Untapped potential exists in travel, transport, and financial services, which can drive future export growth.
RPSC Senior Grade II (Social Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 20
The Fundamental Duties are addressed to the ________.
Detailed Solution for RPSC Senior Grade II (Social Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 20

The correct answer is Citizens.

Key Points

  • On the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee, the fundamental duties were added.
  • They were added by the 42nd Amendment, 1976 in our Indian Constitution.
  • The 86th Amendment raised the number of the fundamental obligations from 10 to 11 in 2002.
  • Fundamental duties are addressed to the citizens whereas directive principles address to the state.

Additional Information

  • List of all Fundamental duties:
    • Abide by the Constitution and respect national flag & National Anthem
    • Follow ideals of the freedom struggle
    • Protect sovereignty & integrity of India
    • Defend the country and render national services when called upon
    • Sprit of common brotherhood
    • Preserve composite culture
    • Preserve natural environment
    • Develop scientific temper
    • Safeguard public property
    • Strive for excellence
    • Duty for all parents/guardians to send their children in the age group of 6-14 years to school.
RPSC Senior Grade II (Social Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 21
Relation between Union and States is defined in Part _________ of the Constitution of India.
Detailed Solution for RPSC Senior Grade II (Social Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 21
  • Part XI of the Indian Constitution defines the relationship between Union and States.
  • In 1983, the Government of India set up the Sarkaria Commission for Union-State relations.
  • 7th schedule of the Indian Constitution divides the legislative powers between the Union and states.
RPSC Senior Grade II (Social Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 22
What is the biggest challange to Democracy?
Detailed Solution for RPSC Senior Grade II (Social Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 22

The correct answer is Strengthening of Democracy.Key Points

A democracy is a form of government in which the people choose their leaders through free and fair elections through universal adult voting and a set of fundamental rules like a constitution.

  • Rigorous consultation and discussions in a democracy contribute to better decision-making, as evidenced by the special status accorded to scheduled areas and the North-East in the Indian Constitution, which reflects their culture, while China attempted to restrict freedoms in Hong Kong and military dictators did the same in African nations.
  • Challenges for democracy:
    • In the 1990s, coalition politics in India led to short-term governments because of frequent elections and incompatible political ideologies.
    • Low moral values, such as crony capitalism, are the result of power games and competitive politics: the 2G spectrum scandal, a case of bureaucracy, politics, and crime colliding.
    • Decision-making can be slowed down by democratic processes, such as the UNFCCC's lengthy process of reaching consensus on the Climate Agenda despite the urgency of the issue.
    • People's immediate political needs and advantages, may not be taken into consideration when elected leaders make decisions. They would pander to issues of political gain such as caste, class, gender, and other inequalities.
  • Democracy allows for course corrections by allowing for mistakes to be fixed. Examples include the Indian Prime Minister apologizing to the Sikh community for atrocities committed in the middle of the 1980s and the Japanese Prime Minister doing the same for atrocities committed in Manchuria and South Korea during World War II.
RPSC Senior Grade II (Social Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 23
The duration of India's new foreign trade policy is
Detailed Solution for RPSC Senior Grade II (Social Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 23

The duration of the current Foreign Trade Policy of India is Five years.Important Points

  • The primary goal of the policy would be to position India as a global trade leader within the next five years. The Ministry of Commerce and Industry is preparing for the new policy as part of the Government's commitment to achieving its $5 trillion goal.
  • Targeting a $5 trillion economy: The Prime Minister has urged citizens to "Voice for Local" and "Be Local and Go Global" to realise the vision of a $5 trillion Indian economy by 2025.
    • India has to quadruple its exports to $1 trillion by 2025 and see GDP growth of at least 8% to achieve this.
    • The advisory panel has recommended changes to labour regulations, lower capital costs, choosing the correct trading partner, sector-specific export promotion strategies, etc.
  • Implementation of District Export Hubs - The new policy's "District Export hub initiative," which aims to assist small businesses and farmers by presenting export opportunities through eCommerce and digital marketing platforms, will play a significant role in the implementation of District Export Hubs.
  • The sector has long demanded that India's international trade processes be balanced; discussions have been held to loosen restrictions on the global market about FTP policy and procedure, minimize transaction costs, and improve the convenience of doing business.

Thus we know that the duration of the current Foreign Trade policy of India is Five Years.

RPSC Senior Grade II (Social Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 24

Match List I with List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Detailed Solution for RPSC Senior Grade II (Social Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 24

The correct answer is - (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II).

Key Points

  • Matrilineal
    • Meaning: Descent traced through females
    • In a matrilineal system, lineage and inheritance are traced through the mother's line.
  • Neolocal
    • Meaning: Patterns of residence where married couple reside in a dwelling away from both their natal families
    • Neolocal residence refers to a post-marriage living arrangement where the couple establishes a new, independent household.
  • Patrilineal
    • Meaning: Descent traced through males
    • In a patrilineal system, lineage and inheritance are traced through the father's line.
  • Patriarchy
    • Meaning: Male head of the family holding power over other family members
    • Patriarchy is a social system where men hold primary power and predominate in roles of political leadership, moral authority, and control of property.
RPSC Senior Grade II (Social Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 25

Which administrative reform in India aims to improve the efficiency and transparency of government services by providing citizens with a unique identification number?

Detailed Solution for RPSC Senior Grade II (Social Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 25

The Correct Answer is Aadhaar
The Aadhaar program in India aims to provide each citizen with a unique identification number based on biometric and demographic data. It is an administrative reform designed to improve the delivery of government services, enhance transparency, and prevent leakages in various social welfare schemes.

Key Points

  • Universal Identification: One of the primary goals of Aadhaar is to ensure that every resident in India has a unique and verifiable identification number. This unique identification helps in eliminating duplication, fraud, and identity theft in various government and private sector transactions.
  • Efficient Delivery of Government Services: Aadhaar serves as a tool to streamline the delivery of government services to citizens. By providing a standardized and unique identifier, it becomes easier for government agencies to target beneficiaries accurately and deliver services such as subsidies, pensions, and welfare programs directly to the intended recipients. This reduces delays and inefficiencies in service delivery.
  • Enhanced Transparency: Aadhaar enhances transparency in various government processes. It helps in verifying the identity of individuals in a secure and tamper-proof manner, reducing the scope for corruption, bribery, and manipulation of records in government offices.
  • Preventing Leakages: The Aadhaar program plays a crucial role in preventing leakages and diversion of government funds and benefits. By ensuring that subsidies and welfare benefits reach the targeted beneficiaries, it reduces the opportunities for middlemen to siphon off resources intended for the vulnerable sections of society.
  • Financial Inclusion: Aadhaar is linked to bank accounts, which promotes financial inclusion. It enables individuals, especially those in rural and underserved areas, to access banking and financial services, paving the way for economic empowerment and access to credit.
  • Digital Authentication: Aadhaar provides a secure and convenient means of digital authentication. Individuals can use their Aadhaar numbers and biometrics for various transactions, including opening bank accounts, obtaining SIM cards, and accessing government services online.
  • E-Governance and Digital Transformation: The Aadhaar program aligns with India's broader goals of e-governance and digital transformation. It enables the government to digitize and streamline administrative processes, making them more efficient and citizen-friendly.
  • Privacy and Security: While Aadhaar enhances convenience and efficiency, it also places a strong emphasis on privacy and data security. Biometric and demographic data collected under Aadhaar are subject to stringent security measures and privacy regulations to protect individuals' personal information.

Additional Information

  • The Aadhaar program in India is an administrative reform initiative designed to provide every citizen with a unique identification number based on biometric and demographic data.
  • Its primary objectives include improving the delivery of government services, enhancing transparency, preventing leakages in welfare schemes, and promoting financial inclusion.
  • Aadhaar has had a transformative impact on various aspects of governance and has become an integral part of India's digital and administrative landscape.
RPSC Senior Grade II (Social Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 26
Vedanta philosophy primarily focuses on the realization of which ultimate principle?
Detailed Solution for RPSC Senior Grade II (Social Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 26

The correct answer is 'Brahman'

Key Points

  • Vedanta philosophy:
    • Vedanta is one of the six orthodox schools of Hindu philosophy that primarily focuses on the study and interpretation of the Upanishads.
    • The central theme of Vedanta is the exploration of the nature of reality, especially the relationship between the individual self (Atman) and the ultimate reality (Brahman).
    • Brahman is considered the ultimate, unchanging reality, amidst and beyond the world, which cannot be exactly defined but is realized through spiritual practice and knowledge.
    • The realization of Brahman is seen as the highest goal of human life, leading to liberation (Moksha) from the cycle of birth and rebirth (Samsara).

Additional Information

  • Praxis:
    • Praxis is a term more commonly associated with the practical application of a theory, especially in the social and political context. It is not a central focus in Vedanta philosophy.
  • Karma:
    • Karma refers to the law of cause and effect, where an individual's actions influence their future. While important in Hindu philosophy, it is not the ultimate principle of Vedanta.
  • Samsara:
    • Samsara is the cycle of birth, death, and rebirth that individuals seek to transcend. The realization of Brahman leads to liberation from Samsara, but Samsara itself is not the primary focus of Vedanta.
RPSC Senior Grade II (Social Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 27
Descartes causal argument proves the existence of God
Detailed Solution for RPSC Senior Grade II (Social Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 27

The correct answer is from the idea of the perfection of God.Key Points

  • Descartes' ontological (or a priori) argument is one of the most fascinating and poorly understood aspects of his philosophy.
  • Descartes begins the argument by making the controversial claim that we all have an idea of God as an infinite being.
  • Since we have an idea with infinite objective reality (namely, the idea of God), hence God exists
  • Descartes' ontological argument goes as follows:
    • (1) Our idea of God is of a perfect being,
    • (2) it is more perfect to exist than not to exist,
    • (3) therefore, God must exist.

Additional Information

  • Cartesian doubt is a systematic process of being sceptical about (or doubting) the truth of one's beliefs, which has become a characteristic method
  • French philosopher Nicolas Malebranche (1638–1715) famously argued that ‘we see all things in God.

Thus, Descartes's causal argument proves the existence of God from the idea of the perfection of God.

RPSC Senior Grade II (Social Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 28
A teacher can easily identify talented students who have the potential for becoming good leaders through:
Detailed Solution for RPSC Senior Grade II (Social Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 28

Methods of teaching: It is the pedagogy and general principles use for instruction The strategy has to be set up based on the educational philosophy, students learning capacity, subject matter, and the classroom demography. Sometimes infrastructure plays an important role in the teaching method.

Important Points

Role-playing method: The word ‘role’ implies accepting a part in a sequence and play means acting it out. Roleplay is more flexible compared to a drama.

  • The drama will have a fixed theme, the conversations being prefixed, the sequence of events being rigidly followed, etc.
  • The role play does not have any one of these. In a role-play, there may be a theme, but the conversations will have to be evolved by a group of students or actors.
  • Sometimes role play is organized without having necessary rehearsals.
  • Example: Play the role of a Panchayat President who is addressing the members of Gram Sabha.
  • Roleplay is very helpful in sensitizing the students to certain issues and making them understand the difficulties involved by placing them in the given roles. It develops in them confidence, communication skills, etc. which are also a part of life skills.

Key Points

Advantages

  • Develops skills in leadership, interviewing, and social interaction, e.g., how to lead a discussion, how to be a member of the team responsible for patient care.
  • Provides an opportunity for the student to put herself in another's place and to become more sensitive to another's feelings.
  • Develops skills in group problem - solving. It helps the student in identifying critical issues and to come to a neutral agreement.
  • Allows the student to practice selected behavior in a real-life situation without the stress of making a mistake.

Hence, we can conclude that A teacher can easily identify talented students who have the potential for becoming good leaders through role-playing method.

Additional Information

  • Discussion method: The discussion method is one of the important methods of teaching. It is an orderly process of making a collective decision, which helps in cultivating democratic values. It seeks agreement, but if it is not reached, it has the value of clarifying and sharpening the nature of the agreement.
  • Conversation method: It is a structured conversational process that brings a group of students together to have a conversation about a specific topic in the classroom under the supervision of a teacher.
  • Question and answer method: Question answer teaching strategy is an old strategy It is also known as the “Socratic Method of teaching”. This strategy is focused on achieving the cognitive objectives and bringing knowledge to the conscious level in Teaching-Learning Process.
RPSC Senior Grade II (Social Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 29

For a field trip to be successful, it needs to be organized carefully at three stages viz;

Choose the correct order.

Detailed Solution for RPSC Senior Grade II (Social Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 29

An educational/Field trip is the best approach to make learning alive. It is about taking students to a certain place where they can earn knowledge by direct contact with real situations.

  • It is can be best used to teach the concepts of science as scientific concepts are based on true practical applications of knowledge which can not be well understood in a classroom.
  • It can be a trip to a museum, botanical gardens, zoo, farms, tv station, radio station, aquarium, and other explorable places that have educational implications.

Key Points

Three stages of the field trip:-

  • Planning:- The first step is planning the trip, where to go, for what purpose the field trip is organised etc.
  • Execution:- After choosing the place, the next step is how the plan is carried out, how to go to the place, and all other things.
  • Follow-up:- The last stage is follow-up. After planning and execution, the need arises to check whether everything has been planned correctly or executed properly.

Thus, it is concluded that For a field trip to be successful, it needs to be organized carefully at three stages viz; Planning, execution, and follow-up.

RPSC Senior Grade II (Social Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 30
Blue-print is used in preparing the question-papers, because
Detailed Solution for RPSC Senior Grade II (Social Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 30

A question paper is set to check the knowledge acquired by the students and to know the achievement of students. The students have to specifically demonstrate the knowledge and information acquired by them. A good question paper must be purposeful, valid, relevant, concise, and objective.

Key Points

Blueprint:

  • The term 'Blue Print' is derived from the domain of architecture which means 'detailed plan of action'.
  • Here, in education it deals with the detailed plan of the question paper or it is also known as test specification providing examinations strategy of an institution at a glance.
    • It is a three-dimensional chart which is the basic outline of the test that is going to be conducted.
    • It shows the placement of each question with respect to the objective and the content area that it tests.
    • It must follow the respective weightage to all the units, lessons, objectives in the subject matter as mentioned in the syllabus.
    • The teacher considers it as a guide while making question papers which eases the procedure of setting the question papers.

Hence, it is clear that a blue-print is used in preparing the question-papers, so that different types of questions could find place.

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