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Practice Test - NEET MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test - Practice Test

Practice Test for NEET 2025 is part of NEET preparation. The Practice Test questions and answers have been prepared according to the NEET exam syllabus.The Practice Test MCQs are made for NEET 2025 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for Practice Test below.
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Practice Test - Question 1

electromagnetic induction i.e currents can be induced in coils (Select the best)

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 1

Explanation:for electromagnetic induction magnet and coil both may move but relative motion between must be present

Practice Test - Question 2

Predict the polarity of the capacitor in the situation described by fig.

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 2

Explanation:A will become positive with respect to B because current  indused is in clockwise direction

Practice Test - Question 3

A circular coil of radius 8.0 cm and 20 turns is rotated about its vertical diameter with an angular speed of 50 rad s-1 in a uniform horizontal magnetic field of magnitude 3×10-2 T. If the coil resistance is 10Ω, maximum emf induced in the coil,maximum value of current in the coil and average power loss due to Joule heating are

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 3

e = NBAω = 20 x 3 x 10-2 x (3.14 x 0.08 x 0.08) x 50 = 0.603C

 

average power loss due to joule heating

Practice Test - Question 4

An ac generator consists of 8 turns of wire, each of area A=0.0900m2 , and the total resistance of the wire is 12.0Ω. The loop rotates in a 0.500-T magnetic field at a constant frequency of 60.0 Hz. Maximum induced emf is

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 4

e = NBAω = NBA2πn = 8 x 0.5 x 0.09 x 2 x 3.14 x 60 = 136V

Practice Test - Question 5

Heat is supplied to the gas, but its internal energy does not increase. What is the process involved?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 5

Solution:

  • The first law of thermodynamics states: dQ = dU + dW.
  • In an isothermal process, the temperature remains constant.
  • This means the change in internal energy (dU) is zero because internal energy is a function of temperature.
  • Thus, all the heat supplied (dQ) is used to do work (dW).
  • According to the second law of thermodynamics, not all heat can be converted to work, but in this ideal case, internal energy does not increase.
Practice Test - Question 6

Which of the following are the extensive variables?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 6

Extensive variable →H (enthalpy), E (Internal energy) and Mass. Since these variables depend on the amount of substance or volume or size of the system.

Practice Test - Question 7

In an adiabatic process internal energy of gas

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 7

From the first law of thermodynamics,
we know, dU = dQ - dW ; (work done BY the system is considered +ve)
For an adiabatic process, dQ = 0, and hence, dU = -dW
For an ideal gas expansion, we see that work done
BY the system is +ve (recall the sign convention for work done), i.e., dW > 0.
Therefore, dU is less than 0, and thus, the internal energy decreases.

Practice Test - Question 8

Find the final temperature of one mole of an ideal gas at an initial temperature to t K.The gas does 9 R joules of work adiabatically. The ratio of specific heats of this gas at constant pressure and at constant volume is 4/3.

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 8

TInitial  = t K
Work, W = 9R
Ratio of specific heats, γ = C/ Cv = 4/3
In an adiabatic process, we have
W = R(TFinal – Tinitial) / (1-γ)
9R = R (TFinal – t) / (1 – 4/3)
TFinal – t = 9 (-1/3) = -3
TFinal  = (t-3) K

Practice Test - Question 9

Arrange the following alcohols, hydrocarbon and ether in order of their increasing boiling points Pentan – 1 – ol, n – butane, pentanal, ethoxyethane.

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 9

Alcohols have higher boiling points than aldehydes.

Practice Test - Question 10

The compound formed as a result of oxidation of ethyl benzene by KMnO4 is

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 10

Practice Test - Question 11

Give IUPAC names of the following compound:

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 11

This is 1-phenyl propan-1-one.

Practice Test - Question 12

The reagents to bring about the change from but – 2 – ene to ethanal  

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 12

Reductive Ozonolysis of alkene forms aldehyde or ketone.

Practice Test - Question 13

Propanamide on treatment with bromine in an aqueous solution of sodium hydroxide gives:

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 13

Practice Test - Question 14

We can obtain ethylamine by Hoffmann bromamide reaction. The amide used in this reaction is:

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 14

The correct answer is option C
CH3​CH2​CONH2​ (A)⟶ CH3​ − CH2 ​− NH2​ (B)⟶ ​CH3​ − CH2 ​− OH
In the above sequence A & B respectively are Br2​/KOH and HNO2
The first step is Hoffmann bromamide degradation reaction in which an amide (propanamide) is converted to an amine  (ethylamine) containing one carbon atom less. The reagent A is bromine in presence of KOH. In the second step, aliphatic primary amine (ethyl amine) reacts with nitrous acid (reagent B) to form aliphatic primary alcohol (ethyl alcohol).
 

Practice Test - Question 15

 Nitro compounds are reduced to amines. The catalyst that is preferred is:

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 15

Fe + HCl is preferred due to the following reasons:
- Scrap iron i.e Fe is cheap and commercially easily available
- FeCl2 formed will get hydrolysed and release HCl, so, HCl which is required in the reaction will be produced by itself
- Hence only small amount of HCl is required to initiate the reaction.

Practice Test - Question 16

 is a tertiary amine having IUPAC name as:

Practice Test - Question 17

The phenotypic ratio in the F2 generation of a dihybrid cross is​

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 17

Because it produces produced nine plants with round, yellow seeds, three plants with round, green seeds, three plants with wrinkled, yellow seeds and one plant with wrinkled, green seeds.therefore the ratio is 9 : 3 : 3 : 1

Practice Test - Question 18

What is the expected outcome of a cross between a homozygous dominant tall pea plant (TT) and a homozygous recessive dwarf pea plant (tt)?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 18

 When a homozygous dominant tall pea plant (TT) is crossed with a homozygous recessive dwarf pea plant (tt), all the offspring (F1 generation) will be heterozygous (Tt) and exhibit the dominant tall phenotype. This is a classic example of Mendel's law of dominance, where the dominant allele masks the presence of the recessive allele in the heterozygote

Practice Test - Question 19

What determines the differences between the progeny and parents?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 19
  • Variation is the difference between individuals within a population.
  • These arise between the progeny and parents/ancestors and form a backbone for natural selection to act on.
Practice Test - Question 20

The gene which controls many characters is called

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 20

A single gene may have two or more phenotypic expressions. The multiple phenotypic effect of a single gene is called pleiotropism. Hence the gene associated with this phenomenon is called Pleiotropic gene.

Practice Test - Question 21

Heterozygous purple flower is crossed with recessive white flower. The progeny has the ratio:

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 21

Practice Test - Question 22

Mating of an organism to a double recessive in order to determine whether it is homozygous or heterozygous for a character under consideration is called

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 22

 Test cross is across made to identify hidden recessive alleles in an individual of unknown genotye. This individual is crossed with one that is homozygous for the allele being investigated (i.e., a homozygous recessive). The homozygous recessive individual may be the parent of the individual being investigated.

Practice Test - Question 23

Which of the following statements is true about DNA replication?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 23

DNA molecules are replicated in both meiosis and mitosis.  DNA unwinds and unzips along its base pair chemical bonds.  Free nucleotides then connect to the exposed base pairs on both strands resulting in the formation of the missing side of each new DNA.

Practice Test - Question 24

A single strand of nucleic acid tagged with a radioactive molecule is called?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 24

A single strand of nucleic acid tagged with a radioactive molecule is calledProbe. Probe is used to know the mechanism of transcription of DNA. Radioactive substance can be easily detected.

Practice Test - Question 25

What does the structural gene (y) of a lac operon code for?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 25

The structural gene (z) of the lac operon codes for β-galactosidase. It is responsible for the hydrolysis of polysaccharides. The ‘y’ genes code for permease. It increases the permeability of a cell to β-galactosidase. The ‘a’ genes code for transacetylase.

Practice Test - Question 26

A DNA segment which serves as a kind of “ON-OFF switch” for transcription is a/an

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 26

The DNA segment which serves as ON-OFF switch for transcription is called an operator. Operator attach with template strand to initiate transcription process.

Practice Test - Question 27

Which theory explains the origin of universe?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 27

Origin of universe is explained by big bang theory. According to this theory, whole universe was concentrated into single sphere. Due to same unknown region, there was explosion in it that forms different galaxies still moving away from each other.

Practice Test - Question 28

Fossils are most commonly preserved in______.

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 28

Fossils are dead remains of plants and animals buried inside the earth crust millions of year ago. Fossils are commonly preserved in sedimentary rock as this kinds of rocks are formed layer by layer in course of time.

Practice Test - Question 29

Which ape is closely related to the man?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 29
  • Chimpanzee is closely related to man. DNA content and DNA matching are the same in both.
  • This similarity is more than 99% with chimpanzee whereas 94% with a gibbon.
Practice Test - Question 30

Darwin judged the fitness of an individual by

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 30

Darwin judged the fitness of an individual by number of offspring the individual produce in particular niche. More the viable offspring formed the more fit the organism in that surrounding.

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