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AWES PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 5 - AWES TGT/PGT MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test AWES PGT Mock Test Series 2025 - AWES PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 5

AWES PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 5 for AWES TGT/PGT 2025 is part of AWES PGT Mock Test Series 2025 preparation. The AWES PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 5 questions and answers have been prepared according to the AWES TGT/PGT exam syllabus.The AWES PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 5 MCQs are made for AWES TGT/PGT 2025 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for AWES PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 5 below.
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AWES PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 5 - Question 1

Recently, India surpassed which country to become the fourth-largest equity market globally?

Detailed Solution for AWES PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 5 - Question 1

India recently overtook Hong Kong as the world’s fourth-largest equity market, boasting a total market value of $4.33 trillion, surpassing Hong Kong’s $4.29 trillion. The leading global stock markets are currently the U.S., China, and Japan. This milestone underscores India’s rising prominence in the global financial arena, propelled by a robust GDP, political stability, foreign investments, and its appeal as an alternative to China. Meanwhile, Hong Kong grapples with challenges like COVID-19 restrictions, regulatory crackdowns, a property crisis, and geopolitical tensions, affecting its attractiveness to investors.

AWES PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 5 - Question 2

The First World War was concluded by the

Detailed Solution for AWES PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 5 - Question 2

Treaty of Versailles

  • On June 28, 1919, the Treaty of Versailles was signed at the Palace of Versailles outside Paris, France. The treaty was one of several that officially ended five years of conflict known as the Great War—World War I.
  • The Treaty of Versailles outlined the conditions of peace between Germany and the victorious Allies, led by the United States, France, and the United Kingdom. Other Central Powers (significantly, Austria-Hungary) signed different treaties with the Allies.
  • The Treaty of Versailles is one of the most controversial armistice treaties in history. The treaty’s so-called “war guilt” clause forced Germany and other Central Powers to take all the blame for World War I. This meant a loss of territories, reduction in military forces, and reparation payments to Allied powers.
  • The Treaty of Versailles held Germany responsible for starting the war and imposed harsh penalties in terms of loss of territory, massive reparations payments and demilitarization. Far from the “peace without victory” that U.S. President Woodrow Wilson had outlined in his famous Fourteen Points in early 1918, the Treaty of Versailles humiliated Germany while failing to resolve the underlying issues that had led to war in the first place.

  • Economic distress and resentment of the treaty within Germany helped fuel the ultra-nationalist sentiment that led to the rise of Adolf Hitler and his Nazi Party, as well as the coming of World War II just two decades later.

Key Points

The Fourteen Points  

  1. Diplomacy should be public, with no secret treaties.
  2. All nations should enjoy free navigation of the seas.
  3. Free trade should exist among all nations, putting an end to economic barriers between countries.
  4. All countries should reduce arms in the name of public safety.
  5. Fair and impartial rulings in colonial claims.
  6. Restore Russian territories and freedom.
  7. Belgium should be restored to independence.
  8. Alsace-Lorraine should be returned to France and France should be fully liberated.
  9. Italy’s frontiers should be drawn along clearly recognizable lines of nationality.
  10. People living in Austria-Hungary should be granted self-determination.
  11. The Balkan states should also be guaranteed self-determination and independence.
  12. Turks and those under Turkish rule should be granted self-determination.
  13. An independent Poland should be created.
  14. A general association of nations must be formed to mediate international disputes.
AWES PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 5 - Question 3

Mansoon arrives in India approximately in:

Detailed Solution for AWES PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 5 - Question 3

Key Points

Monsoon in India:

  • The southwest monsoon sets in over the Kerala coast by 1st June and moves swiftly to reach Mumbai and Kolkata between 10th and 13th June.
  • By mid-July, southwest monsoon engulfs the entire subcontinent
  • During April and May when the sun shines vertically over the Tropic of Cancer, the large landmass in the north of the Indian ocean gets intensely heated.
  • This causes the formation of intense low pressure in the northwestern part of the subcontinent.
  • Since the pressure in the Indian Ocean in the south of the landmass is high as the water gets heated slowly, the low-pressure cell attracts the southeast trades across the Equator.
  • These conditions help in the northward shift in the position of the ITCZ.
  • The southwest monsoon may thus, be seen as a continuation of the southeast trades deflected towards the Indian subcontinent after crossing the Equator.
  • These winds cross the Equator between 40°E and 60°E longitudes.
  • The shift in the position of the ITCZ is also related to the phenomenon of the withdrawal of the westerly jet stream from its position over the north Indian plain, south of the Himalayas.
  • The easterly jet stream sets in along 15°N latitude only after the western jet stream has withdrawn itself from the region.
  • This easterly jet stream is held responsible for the burst of the monsoon in India.

Hence, the Mansoon arrives in India approximately in early June.

AWES PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 5 - Question 4
According to National Education Policy 2020, Learning should be
Detailed Solution for AWES PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 5 - Question 4

The National Education Policy 2020 aims to bring transformational reforms in school and higher education and thus shape India into a global knowledge superpower.

  • This policy will usher in sweeping changes to the education policy of the country, including a renaming of the Ministry of Human Resource Development as the Education Ministry.

Key Points

  • NEP 2020 is based on the principle that education must develop not only cognitive capacities but also social, ethical, and emotional capacities and dispositions.  
  • < />NEP-2020 has given emphasis on conceptual understanding, creativity and critical thinking, human ethical values, and constitutional values.
  • < /> It proposes that experiential learning should be encouraged to promote conceptual understanding as experiential learning refers to learning by gaining experience through active involvement. 
  • As per National education policy 2020, education must adopt experiential learning including hands-on learning, arts-integrated and sports-integrated education, story-telling-based pedagogy, etc.

Hence, it can be concluded that National Education Policy 2020 states that learning should be experiential.

AWES PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 5 - Question 5

_____ motives deal with the need to reach satisfying feeling states and to obtain personal goals.

Detailed Solution for AWES PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 5 - Question 5

Affective motives deal with the need to reach satisfying feeling states and obtain personal goals. Maslow's theory deals with all types of needs. His Hierarchy of Needs Theory includes Psychological needs (food, air, water.) Safety needs (personal security, health.) Love and Belonging need (friendship, intimacy.) Esteem needs (respect, status.
Hence, this is the correct answer.

AWES PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 5 - Question 6

What happens to atomic radius on going from left to right in a period in a periodic table?

Detailed Solution for AWES PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 5 - Question 6

Atomic radius is generally decreases from left to right along a period because the electrons are added to same shell due to this they experience a great force from the nucleus. While atomic radiusincreases in group from top to bottom cause new shells are added and the electrons are bring away from the nucleus.

AWES PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 5 - Question 7

Consider the following aldol condensation reaction,

Q.

The nucleophile is

Detailed Solution for AWES PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 5 - Question 7

In acid catalysed aldo! condensation, enol acts as a nucleophile.

AWES PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 5 - Question 8

Based on the following thermochemical reactions at 298 K and 1 bar

Q. Enthalpy of vaporisation of H2O (l) is 

Detailed Solution for AWES PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 5 - Question 8

Enthalpy of vaporization is defined for a substance when one mole of the substance is converted into the gaseous state. To obtain the enthalpy of vaporization of H2O liquid we will add reaction 1 and reaction 2 and then divide the enthalpy of x to since we need to calculate the enthalpy of vaporization for single mole of H2O

AWES PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 5 - Question 9

Which state of matter is incompressible?

Detailed Solution for AWES PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 5 - Question 9

Solids form closed packed structure with negligible intermolecular space. So, they do not change their shape in presence of external pressure. Liquids have very less intermolecular spaces so even they are resistant to external pressure and does not change their shape hence are incompressible.

Note: Due to less intermolecular force of attraction, they acquire the shape of the container in which they are kept. The volume of the liquid doesn't change with pressure. Thus making them practically incompressible.

AWES PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 5 - Question 10

How many total cyclic isomers are possible for C5H10 ?

Detailed Solution for AWES PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 5 - Question 10

The correct answer is Option B.
 
5 isomers are possible. C5H10(CnH2n). Molecules having the CnH2n formulas are most likely to be cyclic alkanes. The five isomers are:

(1)   Cyclopentane 
(2) 1-Methylcyclobutane  
(3) 1-Ethylcyclopropane 
(4) 1,1-Dimethylcyclopropane 
(5) 1,2-Dimethylcyclopropane
 

AWES PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 5 - Question 11

An ion M2+, forms the complexes [M(H2O)6]2+, [M(en)3]2+ and [MBr6]4-, match the complex with the appropriate colour.

Detailed Solution for AWES PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 5 - Question 11

Δo value is directly proportional to energy and inversely related to the wavelength. Also, more the ligand is a strong field ligand More will be the value of Δo and lower will be its wavelength. Among the given complexes the strength of ligands are Br− < H2O < en.

Since the emitted colours are red, green, blue the absorbed colours must be green,red,orange. Hence the  compound [M(H2O)6]2+, [M(en)3]2+, [M(Br)6]4− are blue red and green respectively. Hence option B is correct.

AWES PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 5 - Question 12

1 M NaCl and 1 M HCl are present in an aqueous solution. The solution is

Detailed Solution for AWES PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 5 - Question 12

NaCl + HCl : Not the Buffer and Solution is acidic due to HCl.
⇒ pH < 7.

AWES PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 5 - Question 13

A metal in a compound can be displaced by another metal in the uncombined state. Which metal is a better reducing agent in such a case?

Detailed Solution for AWES PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 5 - Question 13

Concept of Reducing Agent:
A reducing agent is a substance that loses or "donates" an electron to another substance in a redox chemical reaction. Therefore, a good reducing agent is the one that gets oxidized easily, or in other words, the one that can easily lose electrons.

Characteristics of a Good Reducing Agent:

  • Electron Loss: A better reducing agent is the one that loses more electrons. This is because by losing electrons, the reducing agent gets oxidized and in turn reduces the other substance. This is the basic principle of a redox reaction.
  • Reactivity: The reactivity of the metal also determines its capacity as a reducing agent. Metals that are high in the reactivity series are good reducing agents. This is because they can easily lose electrons and get oxidized.
  • Stability: Metals that are less stable are better reducing agents because they can easily lose electrons to attain a stable state.

Hence, Option A is the correct answer - a better reducing agent is the one that loses more electrons.

*Multiple options can be correct
AWES PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 5 - Question 14

Direction (Q. Nos. 15-16) This section contains  a paragraph, wach describing theory, experiments, data etc. three Questions related to paragraph have been given.Each question have only one correct answer among the four given options (a),(b),(c),(d)

The complex [Fe(H2O)5NO]2+ is formed in the ring-test for nitrate ion when freshly prepared FeSO4 solution is added to aqueous solution of followed by the addition of conc. H2SO4. NO exists as NO(nitrosyl).

Q.Oxidation number of the Fe in the ring is

Detailed Solution for AWES PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 5 - Question 14

Let, oxidation number of Fe = x

AWES PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 5 - Question 15

At 675 K, H2(g) and CO2(g) react to form CO(g) and H2O(g), Kp for the reaction is 0.16. If a mixture of 0.25 mole of H2(g) and 0.25 mol of CO2 is heated at 675 K, mole% of CO(g) in equilibrium mixture is :

Detailed Solution for AWES PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 5 - Question 15





AWES PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 5 - Question 16

Heat of hydrogenation of ethene is x1 and that of benzene is x2. The resonance energy of benzene is

Detailed Solution for AWES PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 5 - Question 16

Energy of ethene =x1
Number of ethene in benzene=3.
Therefore, Observed energy of hydrogenation of benzene =3x1
Calculated energy of hydrogenation of benzene =x2 (Given)
Therefore, 
Resonance energy = observed - calculated =3x1−x2

AWES PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 5 - Question 17

Liquid – liquid sols are known as

Detailed Solution for AWES PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 5 - Question 17

Liquid in liquid sols are emulsions

AWES PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 5 - Question 18

The quantum number which specifies the location of an electron as well as energy is      

Detailed Solution for AWES PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 5 - Question 18

According to the given sets of options, only option d is correct. The reason or exceptional configuration of Cr is stability of half-filled d subshell. If the Aufbau principle was not followed then the configuration of Cr be [Ar] 3d6. So, if the Aufbau principle won’t be followed, then the options won’t have an electron in their 4s subshell.
 

AWES PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 5 - Question 19

Based on the following thermodynamic data,


 

Q. On the total mass basis of reactants, which reaction will generate the greatest amount of heat?

Detailed Solution for AWES PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 5 - Question 19

From I, total mass of reactant, 36 gm
So, ∆H/mass = -483.636/36 = -13.43 kJ gm-1
For II, total mass of reactant, 54 gm
So, ∆H/mass = -868.2/54 = -16.07 kJ gm-1
FOr III, total mass = 36 gm,  
So, ∆H/mass = -347.33/36 = -9.64 kJ gm-1
Therefore, heat released per unit mass is maximum for II.

AWES PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 5 - Question 20

The unit of rate constant for a first order reaction is

Detailed Solution for AWES PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 5 - Question 20

The correct answer is Option C.

Let R be the rate of reaction.
For first order reaction,
R=K[A]1
⇒K=R[A]-1
Whereas, K and [A] are rate constant and initial concentration of reactant respectively.
Therefore,
Unit of rate constant =(mol L-1)1-nsec-1
For first order reaction, n=1
Unit of rate constant = sec-1
Hence the unit of rate constant for first order reaction is sec-1.

AWES PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 5 - Question 21

Molecular mass of glucose (C6H12O6) is

Detailed Solution for AWES PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 5 - Question 21

Molecular mass will be = 6(12) + 12(1) + 6(16) = 180u.

AWES PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 5 - Question 22

Which of the following statement is incorrect ?

Detailed Solution for AWES PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 5 - Question 22

The correct order of bond dissociation enthalpy is

AWES PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 5 - Question 23

Arrange the following in decreasing order of their boiling points


A) n-butane
B) 2-methylbutane
C) n-pentane
D) 2,2-dimethylpropane

Detailed Solution for AWES PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 5 - Question 23

D is the correct answer.
The boiling point of alkanes increases with increase in molecular mass and for the same alkane, the boiling point decreases with branching. Thus, the decreasing order of their boiling points is:
       C                                     B                                        D                                     
n−Pentane>2−Methylbutane>2,2−Dimethylpropane
> n−Butane
          A

AWES PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 5 - Question 24

What is the major organic product in the following reaction?

Detailed Solution for AWES PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 5 - Question 24


AWES PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 5 - Question 25

Lanthanide for which + II and + III oxidation states are common is

Detailed Solution for AWES PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 5 - Question 25

Europium (Eu) has [Xe] 4f75d06s2 configuration. The oxidation state of + 2 and + 3 are exhibited by these elements, e.g. Eu2+ is[Xe] 4f7and Eu3+ is [Xe]4f6.

AWES PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 5 - Question 26

In the conversion of Br2 to BrO3-, the oxidation number of Br changes from

Detailed Solution for AWES PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 5 - Question 26

Oxidation Number Transition in the Conversion of Br2 to BrO3

  • The oxidation number of an element in its free or uncombined state is zero. This rule applies to bromine in Br2, so the initial oxidation state of Br in Br2 is zero.
  • In BrO3-, the combined state of Bromine, Oxygen has an oxidation state of -2. However, the overall charge of the ion is -1. Since we have three Oxygen atoms, the total contribution of Oxygen is -6. To balance this, the Bromine must have an oxidation state of +5.
  • Therefore, in the conversion of Br2 to BrO3-, the oxidation state of Bromine changes from 0 in Br2 to +5 in BrO3-
  • Hence, the correct answer is Option A: zero to +5.
     
AWES PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 5 - Question 27

H2S (g) initially at a pressure of 10.0 atm and a temperature of 800 K, dissociates as

2H2S(g) ⇌ 2H2(g) + S2(g)

At equilibrium, the partial pressure of S2 vapour is 0.020 atm . Thus, Kp is 

Detailed Solution for AWES PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 5 - Question 27

The correct answer is Option A.
    
                 2H2S(g) ⇌ 2H2(g) + S2(g)

Pressure
at t=0           Pi                −           −
at eqm       Pi−P            2P          P

as P=0.02    thus Pi−P=10−0.02
     Pi=10                     2P=0.04

Kp = 3.23×10−7 atm.

AWES PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 5 - Question 28

The chemical reaction in which reactants require high amount of activation energy are generally

Detailed Solution for AWES PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 5 - Question 28

If activation energy is high rate of reaction will decrease and reaction will be slow.

AWES PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 5 - Question 29

Hot conc. H2SO4 acts as moderately strong oxidising agent. It oxidises both metals and nonmetals. Which of the following element is oxidised by conc. H2SO4 into two gaseous products?

Detailed Solution for AWES PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 5 - Question 29

Option A: Cu + 2H2​SO4​ → CuSO4​ + SO2​ + 2H2​O
Option B: S + 2H2SO4 → 2SO2 +2H2O
Option C: C + 2H2SO4 → CO2 + 2SO2 + 2H2O
Option D: Zn + 2H2SO4 → ZnSO4 + SO2 + 2H2O

Hence, option C is correct.

AWES PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 5 - Question 30

Hydrogen peroxide is a ______________

Detailed Solution for AWES PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 5 - Question 30

Hydrogen peroxide, whose chemical formula is given by H2O2, acts as an oxidizing agent as well as a reducing agent in both acidic and basic medium also. Hydrogen peroxide is an amphoteric substance.

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