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All questions of June 2024 for CUET Commerce Exam
Consider the following statements: - The Silk Road connected the Atlantic coast of Europe with the Pacific coast of Asia.
- The primary route of the Silk Road shifted northward due to climate change.
- The Silk Road was primarily used for transporting silk, spices, gold, and precious stones.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- a)Only one
- b)Only two
- c)All three
- d)None
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
- The Silk Road connected the Atlantic coast of Europe with the Pacific coast of Asia.
- The primary route of the Silk Road shifted northward due to climate change.
- The Silk Road was primarily used for transporting silk, spices, gold, and precious stones.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
a)
Only one
b)
Only two
c)
All three
d)
None
|
Sarthak Goyal answered |
The Silk Road Overview
The Silk Road was a network of trade routes that connected the East and West, facilitating the exchange of goods, culture, and ideas.
Statement 1: Connection of Continents
- The Silk Road indeed connected the Atlantic coast of Europe with the Pacific coast of Asia.
- This trade route spanned multiple regions, including Central Asia, the Middle East, and parts of Europe, allowing for extensive trade networks.
Statement 2: Route Shifts Due to Climate Change
- The primary route of the Silk Road did shift northward at various times due to climatic changes.
- Environmental factors, such as desertification and changes in water availability, influenced trade routes, necessitating new paths for merchants.
Statement 3: Primary Goods Traded
- The Silk Road was primarily utilized for transporting luxury goods, including silk, spices, gold, and precious stones.
- These commodities were highly sought after and played a significant role in the economies of the regions involved.
Conclusion
- All three statements are correct, making the answer option 'C' valid.
- The Silk Road was essential for trade, cultural exchange, and the spread of ideas between Europe and Asia. Each statement highlights a different aspect of its historical significance, confirming the interconnectedness of various civilizations.
The Silk Road was a network of trade routes that connected the East and West, facilitating the exchange of goods, culture, and ideas.
Statement 1: Connection of Continents
- The Silk Road indeed connected the Atlantic coast of Europe with the Pacific coast of Asia.
- This trade route spanned multiple regions, including Central Asia, the Middle East, and parts of Europe, allowing for extensive trade networks.
Statement 2: Route Shifts Due to Climate Change
- The primary route of the Silk Road did shift northward at various times due to climatic changes.
- Environmental factors, such as desertification and changes in water availability, influenced trade routes, necessitating new paths for merchants.
Statement 3: Primary Goods Traded
- The Silk Road was primarily utilized for transporting luxury goods, including silk, spices, gold, and precious stones.
- These commodities were highly sought after and played a significant role in the economies of the regions involved.
Conclusion
- All three statements are correct, making the answer option 'C' valid.
- The Silk Road was essential for trade, cultural exchange, and the spread of ideas between Europe and Asia. Each statement highlights a different aspect of its historical significance, confirming the interconnectedness of various civilizations.
Consider the following statements: - The WIPO treaty aims to harmonize the rights of biodiverse countries and traditional wisdom with global Intellectual Property Rights.
- India's rich biodiversity and traditional knowledge gain recognition and protection under the WIPO treaty.
- The treaty includes a disclosure requirement for patent applicants regarding the origin of genetic resources in claimed inventions.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- a)Only one
- b)Only two
- c)All three
- d)None
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
- The WIPO treaty aims to harmonize the rights of biodiverse countries and traditional wisdom with global Intellectual Property Rights.
- India's rich biodiversity and traditional knowledge gain recognition and protection under the WIPO treaty.
- The treaty includes a disclosure requirement for patent applicants regarding the origin of genetic resources in claimed inventions.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
a)
Only one
b)
Only two
c)
All three
d)
None
|
Future Foundation Institute answered |
- The WIPO treaty indeed aims to harmonize the rights of biodiverse countries and traditional wisdom with global Intellectual Property Rights.
- India's biodiversity and traditional knowledge gain recognition and protection under the treaty.
- The treaty includes a disclosure requirement for patent applicants to disclose the origin of genetic resources in their inventions.
The “Colombo Process” is associated with which of the following? - a)Economic cooperation among South Asian countries
- b)Migration and development in Asia
- c)Environmental protection in the Indian Ocean region
- d)Cultural exchange programs in Southeast Asia
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
The “Colombo Process” is associated with which of the following?
a)
Economic cooperation among South Asian countries
b)
Migration and development in Asia
c)
Environmental protection in the Indian Ocean region
d)
Cultural exchange programs in Southeast Asia
|
Rajeev Datta answered |
Colombo Process Overview
The Colombo Process is a significant initiative that focuses on the relationship between migration and development in Asia. It was established in 2003 and brings together countries of origin, transit, and destination for migrant workers.
Key Features of the Colombo Process:
- Regional Cooperation: The process aims to enhance cooperation among Asian countries regarding the management of labor migration.
- Policy Development: It facilitates the development of policies that promote safe, orderly, and regular migration while addressing the challenges and opportunities associated with labor mobility.
- Member Countries: The initiative includes countries such as Sri Lanka, India, Nepal, Bangladesh, Pakistan, and several Gulf states, focusing on the needs and rights of migrant workers.
- Focus on Migrant Workers: The primary goal is to protect the rights of migrant workers and ensure their contributions to both the economies of their host countries and their home countries.
- Capacity Building: The Colombo Process emphasizes capacity-building efforts to help member countries develop effective migration policies and practices, including training and awareness programs.
Conclusion
By addressing the complexities of migration and its impact on development, the Colombo Process serves as a platform for dialogue and collaboration among countries in Asia. It recognizes that migration is not just a challenge but also an opportunity for economic growth and social development, making it a pivotal element in the discourse on migration in the region.
The Colombo Process is a significant initiative that focuses on the relationship between migration and development in Asia. It was established in 2003 and brings together countries of origin, transit, and destination for migrant workers.
Key Features of the Colombo Process:
- Regional Cooperation: The process aims to enhance cooperation among Asian countries regarding the management of labor migration.
- Policy Development: It facilitates the development of policies that promote safe, orderly, and regular migration while addressing the challenges and opportunities associated with labor mobility.
- Member Countries: The initiative includes countries such as Sri Lanka, India, Nepal, Bangladesh, Pakistan, and several Gulf states, focusing on the needs and rights of migrant workers.
- Focus on Migrant Workers: The primary goal is to protect the rights of migrant workers and ensure their contributions to both the economies of their host countries and their home countries.
- Capacity Building: The Colombo Process emphasizes capacity-building efforts to help member countries develop effective migration policies and practices, including training and awareness programs.
Conclusion
By addressing the complexities of migration and its impact on development, the Colombo Process serves as a platform for dialogue and collaboration among countries in Asia. It recognizes that migration is not just a challenge but also an opportunity for economic growth and social development, making it a pivotal element in the discourse on migration in the region.
Consider the following statements: - Severe child food poverty affects children from both poor and non-poor households.
- In India, 40% of children under 5 face severe child food poverty.
- Severe child food poverty leads to the availability of nutrient-rich foods and a healthy diet.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- a)Only one
- b)Only two
- c)All three
- d)None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
- Severe child food poverty affects children from both poor and non-poor households.
- In India, 40% of children under 5 face severe child food poverty.
- Severe child food poverty leads to the availability of nutrient-rich foods and a healthy diet.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
a)
Only one
b)
Only two
c)
All three
d)
None
|
|
Shanaya Sarkar answered |
Correct Answer:
b) Only two
---
Explanation:
Severe Child Food Poverty:
- Severe child food poverty affects children from both poor and non-poor households. This means that children in both low-income and middle-income families can experience food insecurity.
- In India, 40% of children under 5 face severe child food poverty. This statistic highlights the widespread issue of food insecurity among young children in the country.
Impact of Severe Child Food Poverty:
- Severe child food poverty leads to a lack of availability of nutrient-rich foods and a healthy diet. This can have serious consequences on the physical and cognitive development of children, leading to long-term health issues.
Therefore, only statement two is correct as it provides a specific statistic about the prevalence of severe child food poverty in India. The other statements are not entirely accurate in their generalizations about the impact and prevalence of child food poverty.
b) Only two
---
Explanation:
Severe Child Food Poverty:
- Severe child food poverty affects children from both poor and non-poor households. This means that children in both low-income and middle-income families can experience food insecurity.
- In India, 40% of children under 5 face severe child food poverty. This statistic highlights the widespread issue of food insecurity among young children in the country.
Impact of Severe Child Food Poverty:
- Severe child food poverty leads to a lack of availability of nutrient-rich foods and a healthy diet. This can have serious consequences on the physical and cognitive development of children, leading to long-term health issues.
Therefore, only statement two is correct as it provides a specific statistic about the prevalence of severe child food poverty in India. The other statements are not entirely accurate in their generalizations about the impact and prevalence of child food poverty.
Consider the following statements regarding the Criminal Justice System (CJS) in India:1. The Indian Penal Code (IPC) was enacted in 1860 and forms the basis of India's criminal justice system.2. Article 246 of the Constitution of India places the police, public order, courts, prisons, and reformatories in the Union List.3. The Supreme Court in the State of Gujarat v. High Court of Gujarat Case, 1988, held that reasonable wages must be paid to prisoners for the work or labour they have done.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 Only
- b)2 Only
- c)1 and 3 Only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding the Criminal Justice System (CJS) in India:
1. The Indian Penal Code (IPC) was enacted in 1860 and forms the basis of India's criminal justice system.
2. Article 246 of the Constitution of India places the police, public order, courts, prisons, and reformatories in the Union List.
3. The Supreme Court in the State of Gujarat v. High Court of Gujarat Case, 1988, held that reasonable wages must be paid to prisoners for the work or labour they have done.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 Only
b)
2 Only
c)
1 and 3 Only
d)
1, 2 and 3
|
Upsc Toppers answered |
Statement 1 is correct: The Indian Penal Code (IPC), enacted in 1860, indeed forms the basis of India's criminal justice system. It is a comprehensive code intended to cover all substantive aspects of criminal law.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Article 246 of the Constitution of India places the police, public order, courts, prisons, reformatories, and other allied institutions in the State List, not the Union List. This means these areas fall under the jurisdiction of state governments rather than the central government.
Statement 3 is correct: In the State of Gujarat v. High Court of Gujarat Case, 1988, the Supreme Court held that reasonable wages must be paid to prisoners for the work or labour they perform, recognizing their right to be compensated for their work.
Therefore, the correct answer is Option C: 1 and 3 Only.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Landslides in Northeast India are primarily caused by deforestation and construction activities.
Statement-II: Human activities are significant contributors to landslide vulnerability in this region.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.
- b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.
- c)Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
- d)Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Landslides in Northeast India are primarily caused by deforestation and construction activities.
Statement-II: Human activities are significant contributors to landslide vulnerability in this region.
Statement-I: Landslides in Northeast India are primarily caused by deforestation and construction activities.
Statement-II: Human activities are significant contributors to landslide vulnerability in this region.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.
b)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.
c)
Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
d)
Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
|
Shounak Desai answered |
Explanation:
Statement-I: Landslides in Northeast India are primarily caused by deforestation and construction activities.
- This statement is correct as deforestation and construction activities can destabilize soil and increase the likelihood of landslides.
- The removal of trees can reduce the strength of the soil, making it more susceptible to erosion and landslides.
- Construction activities such as road-building can alter natural drainage patterns and increase the risk of landslides.
Statement-II: Human activities are significant contributors to landslide vulnerability in this region.
- This statement is also correct as human activities play a significant role in increasing landslide vulnerability.
- Activities such as deforestation, construction, mining, and improper land use practices can all contribute to the destabilization of slopes and increase the risk of landslides.
Explanation of the Correct Answer:
- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.
- Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I because it highlights the role of human activities in causing landslides in Northeast India.
- Therefore, the correct answer is option 'A' - Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.
Statement-I: Landslides in Northeast India are primarily caused by deforestation and construction activities.
- This statement is correct as deforestation and construction activities can destabilize soil and increase the likelihood of landslides.
- The removal of trees can reduce the strength of the soil, making it more susceptible to erosion and landslides.
- Construction activities such as road-building can alter natural drainage patterns and increase the risk of landslides.
Statement-II: Human activities are significant contributors to landslide vulnerability in this region.
- This statement is also correct as human activities play a significant role in increasing landslide vulnerability.
- Activities such as deforestation, construction, mining, and improper land use practices can all contribute to the destabilization of slopes and increase the risk of landslides.
Explanation of the Correct Answer:
- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.
- Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I because it highlights the role of human activities in causing landslides in Northeast India.
- Therefore, the correct answer is option 'A' - Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.
Consider the following pairs regarding the Criminal Justice System (CJS) in India:1. Article 246: Places police, public order, courts, prisons, and reformatories in the Union List.2. Section 161 of Criminal Procedure Code, 1973: Allows the investigation officer to question anyone who may know about the case and write down their statement.3. National Police Commission (NPC): Recommended that there must be an enquiry in cases of custodial death or rapes.4. Krishnan Iyer Committee: Recommended the appointment of women staff in the police for handling child offenders.How many pairs given above are correctly matched?- a)Only one pair
- b)Only two pairs
- c)Only three pairs
- d)All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following pairs regarding the Criminal Justice System (CJS) in India:
1. Article 246: Places police, public order, courts, prisons, and reformatories in the Union List.
2. Section 161 of Criminal Procedure Code, 1973: Allows the investigation officer to question anyone who may know about the case and write down their statement.
3. National Police Commission (NPC): Recommended that there must be an enquiry in cases of custodial death or rapes.
4. Krishnan Iyer Committee: Recommended the appointment of women staff in the police for handling child offenders.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
a)
Only one pair
b)
Only two pairs
c)
Only three pairs
d)
All four pairs
|
|
Future Foundation Institute answered |
1. Article 246: Places police, public order, courts, prisons, and reformatories in the Union List.- Incorrect. Article 246 places these items in the State List, not the Union List.
2. Section 161 of Criminal Procedure Code, 1973: Allows the investigation officer to question anyone who may know about the case and write down their statement.- Correct. Section 161 CrPC allows the investigation officer to question any person who is supposed to be acquainted with the facts and circumstances of the case and to record their statement.
3. National Police Commission (NPC): Recommended that there must be an enquiry in cases of custodial death or rapes.- Correct. The NPC recommended that there should be an enquiry in cases of custodial death or rapes to prevent abuse of power.
4. Krishnan Iyer Committee: Recommended the appointment of women staff in the police for handling child offenders.- Correct. The Krishnan Iyer Committee recommended the appointment of women staff in the police force specifically for dealing with child offenders to ensure better handling of such cases.
Hence, three pairs are correctly matched.
Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): The "One Belt, One Road" initiative focuses on reviving the Silk Route for trade.
Reason (R): The initiative includes various infrastructure projects to enhance connectivity across multiple regions.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- a)A is incorrect but R is correct
- b)Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation for A
- c)A is correct but R is incorrect
- d)Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation for A
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): The "One Belt, One Road" initiative focuses on reviving the Silk Route for trade.
Reason (R): The initiative includes various infrastructure projects to enhance connectivity across multiple regions.
Assertion (A): The "One Belt, One Road" initiative focuses on reviving the Silk Route for trade.
Reason (R): The initiative includes various infrastructure projects to enhance connectivity across multiple regions.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
A is incorrect but R is correct
b)
Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation for A
c)
A is correct but R is incorrect
d)
Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation for A
|
Ias Masters answered |
Assertion is incorrect: The "One Belt, One Road" initiative does not solely focus on reviving the Silk Route for trade.
Reason is correct: The initiative includes various infrastructure projects to enhance connectivity across multiple regions.
Reason is correct: The initiative includes various infrastructure projects to enhance connectivity across multiple regions.
Which one of the following in Indian polity is an essential feature that indicates that it is federal in character? - a)The independence of the judiciary is safeguarded.
- b)The Union Legislature has elected representatives from constituent units.
- c)The Union Cabinet can have elected representatives from regional parties
- d)The Fundamental Rights are enforceable by Courts of Law.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Which one of the following in Indian polity is an essential feature that indicates that it is federal in character?
a)
The independence of the judiciary is safeguarded.
b)
The Union Legislature has elected representatives from constituent units.
c)
The Union Cabinet can have elected representatives from regional parties
d)
The Fundamental Rights are enforceable by Courts of Law.
|
T.S Academy answered |
Federalism is a system of government that combines a central or “federal” government with regional governments within a single political framework, distributing powers between them. In India, the Constitution outlines the structure of governance, delineating the relationship between the federal government and state governments. Legislative, administrative, and executive powers are divided between the Union government and the states through the Union List, State List, and Concurrent List.
Consider the following statements regarding the Reciprocal Exchange of Logistics Agreement (RELOS) between India and Russia:1. RELOS will facilitate the replenishment of essential supplies like fuel, rations, and spare parts during joint military operations.2. The RELOS agreement allows both countries to utilize each other's military bases and logistics networks.3. The agreement is intended to counterbalance the influence of the United States and China in the region.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 Only
- b)1 and 2 Only
- c)1 and 3 Only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding the Reciprocal Exchange of Logistics Agreement (RELOS) between India and Russia:
1. RELOS will facilitate the replenishment of essential supplies like fuel, rations, and spare parts during joint military operations.
2. The RELOS agreement allows both countries to utilize each other's military bases and logistics networks.
3. The agreement is intended to counterbalance the influence of the United States and China in the region.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 Only
b)
1 and 2 Only
c)
1 and 3 Only
d)
1, 2 and 3
|
S.S Career Academy answered |
All three statements accurately describe the various aspects and strategic significance of the RELOS agreement between India and Russia.
1. Statement 1 is correct: The RELOS agreement will indeed facilitate the replenishment of essential supplies such as fuel, rations, and spare parts, which is crucial for sustaining continuous military operations.
2. Statement 2 is correct: The agreement allows both countries to utilize each other's military bases and logistics networks, enhancing operational efficiency and reach.
3. Statement 3 is correct: One of the strategic intentions behind the RELOS agreement is to counterbalance the influence of the United States and China in the region, providing a strategic edge to both India and Russia.
Therefore, the correct answer is Option D
What is the primary purpose of the Kavach System in the context of Indian Railways safety measures?- a)To enhance the comfort of passengers during train journeys
- b)To prevent train collisions through advanced technology
- c)To improve the speed of trains on congested routes
- d)To reduce ticketing errors in railway booking systems
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
What is the primary purpose of the Kavach System in the context of Indian Railways safety measures?
a)
To enhance the comfort of passengers during train journeys
b)
To prevent train collisions through advanced technology
c)
To improve the speed of trains on congested routes
d)
To reduce ticketing errors in railway booking systems
|
|
Shruti Desai answered |
Primary Purpose of Kavach System in Indian Railways Safety Measures
The Kavach System in the context of Indian Railways safety measures primarily serves the purpose of preventing train collisions through advanced technology.
Preventing Train Collisions
- The Kavach System is designed to enhance the safety of train operations by providing real-time information and alerts to train drivers and control centers.
- It utilizes advanced technologies such as GPS, sensors, and communication systems to monitor the movement of trains and detect potential collision risks.
- In case of any impending collision, the system automatically triggers alarms and alerts to warn the train driver and control center, enabling timely intervention to prevent accidents.
Enhancing Safety Measures
- By implementing the Kavach System, Indian Railways aims to significantly reduce the risk of train collisions and enhance overall safety measures for passengers and railway staff.
- The system helps in improving the efficiency of train operations by providing accurate data on train movements and potential hazards, allowing for better decision-making and coordination.
Conclusion
In conclusion, the primary purpose of the Kavach System in the context of Indian Railways safety measures is to prevent train collisions through the use of advanced technology and real-time monitoring. By enhancing safety measures and reducing the risk of accidents, the system plays a crucial role in ensuring the safe and efficient operation of trains on Indian Railways network.
The Kavach System in the context of Indian Railways safety measures primarily serves the purpose of preventing train collisions through advanced technology.
Preventing Train Collisions
- The Kavach System is designed to enhance the safety of train operations by providing real-time information and alerts to train drivers and control centers.
- It utilizes advanced technologies such as GPS, sensors, and communication systems to monitor the movement of trains and detect potential collision risks.
- In case of any impending collision, the system automatically triggers alarms and alerts to warn the train driver and control center, enabling timely intervention to prevent accidents.
Enhancing Safety Measures
- By implementing the Kavach System, Indian Railways aims to significantly reduce the risk of train collisions and enhance overall safety measures for passengers and railway staff.
- The system helps in improving the efficiency of train operations by providing accurate data on train movements and potential hazards, allowing for better decision-making and coordination.
Conclusion
In conclusion, the primary purpose of the Kavach System in the context of Indian Railways safety measures is to prevent train collisions through the use of advanced technology and real-time monitoring. By enhancing safety measures and reducing the risk of accidents, the system plays a crucial role in ensuring the safe and efficient operation of trains on Indian Railways network.
Consider the following statements regarding the criteria for defining heatwaves by the India Meteorological Department (IMD):1. In hilly regions, a heatwave is defined when the maximum temperature reaches at least 30°C or more.2. A severe heatwave in the plains is declared when the actual maximum temperature is above 45°C.3. In coastal areas, a severe heatwave is defined when the temperature departure from normal is 7°C or more.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 Only
- b)1 and 2 Only
- c)1 and 3 Only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding the criteria for defining heatwaves by the India Meteorological Department (IMD):
1. In hilly regions, a heatwave is defined when the maximum temperature reaches at least 30°C or more.
2. A severe heatwave in the plains is declared when the actual maximum temperature is above 45°C.
3. In coastal areas, a severe heatwave is defined when the temperature departure from normal is 7°C or more.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 Only
b)
1 and 2 Only
c)
1 and 3 Only
d)
1, 2 and 3
|
Deepika Gupta answered |
Explanation:
Heatwaves are defined by the India Meteorological Department (IMD) based on specific criteria for different regions. Let's analyze each statement:
- Statement 1:
In hilly regions, a heatwave is defined when the maximum temperature reaches at least 30°C or more. This statement is correct as hilly regions have different temperature thresholds compared to plains or coastal areas due to their geographical characteristics.
- Statement 2:
A severe heatwave in the plains is declared when the actual maximum temperature is above 45°C. This statement is not correct as the IMD defines a severe heatwave in the plains when the actual maximum temperature is above 47°C, not 45°C.
- Statement 3:
In coastal areas, a severe heatwave is defined when the temperature departure from normal is 7°C or more. This statement is incorrect as a severe heatwave in coastal areas is declared when the actual maximum temperature reaches or exceeds 40°C.
Therefore, only Statement 1 is correct according to the criteria for defining heatwaves by the India Meteorological Department.
Heatwaves are defined by the India Meteorological Department (IMD) based on specific criteria for different regions. Let's analyze each statement:
- Statement 1:
In hilly regions, a heatwave is defined when the maximum temperature reaches at least 30°C or more. This statement is correct as hilly regions have different temperature thresholds compared to plains or coastal areas due to their geographical characteristics.
- Statement 2:
A severe heatwave in the plains is declared when the actual maximum temperature is above 45°C. This statement is not correct as the IMD defines a severe heatwave in the plains when the actual maximum temperature is above 47°C, not 45°C.
- Statement 3:
In coastal areas, a severe heatwave is defined when the temperature departure from normal is 7°C or more. This statement is incorrect as a severe heatwave in coastal areas is declared when the actual maximum temperature reaches or exceeds 40°C.
Therefore, only Statement 1 is correct according to the criteria for defining heatwaves by the India Meteorological Department.
Consider the following statements:
- The Deputy Speaker is appointed by the President of the country.
- The Deputy Speaker is elected by the members of the legislative assembly from among themselves.
- The Deputy Speaker has no role in the legislative proceedings in the absence of the Speaker.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
- a)Only one
- b)Only two
- c)All three
- d)None
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
- The Deputy Speaker is appointed by the President of the country.
- The Deputy Speaker is elected by the members of the legislative assembly from among themselves.
- The Deputy Speaker has no role in the legislative proceedings in the absence of the Speaker.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
Only one
b)
Only two
c)
All three
d)
None
|
Capstone Ias Learning answered |
About Deputy Speaker:
- The role of the Deputy Speaker, outlined in Articles 93 and 95(1) of the Constitution, is to perform the duties of the Speaker when the position is vacant.
- The Deputy Speaker is elected by a simple majority in the Lok Sabha, typically during the second session of the new House.
- Despite the constitutional requirement for both Speaker and Deputy Speaker to be elected “as soon as may be,” there is no specified timeframe, allowing delays in appointment.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) was launched due to deteriorating air quality in Indian cities.
Statement-II: AMRUT 1.0 had adequately addressed air quality concerns in urban areas.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.
- b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.
- c)Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
- d)Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) was launched due to deteriorating air quality in Indian cities.
Statement-II: AMRUT 1.0 had adequately addressed air quality concerns in urban areas.
Statement-I: The National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) was launched due to deteriorating air quality in Indian cities.
Statement-II: AMRUT 1.0 had adequately addressed air quality concerns in urban areas.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.
b)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.
c)
Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
d)
Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
|
Sandeep Mukherjee answered |
Explanation of the Statements
The statements provided address two key initiatives concerning air quality and urban development in India.
Statement-I: NCAP and Air Quality
- The National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) was indeed launched in response to the alarming deterioration of air quality in several Indian cities.
- This initiative aims to tackle air pollution through a systematic approach, involving various stakeholders and actions to improve air quality.
Statement-II: AMRUT 1.0 and Air Quality
- AMRUT (Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation) 1.0 primarily focused on urban infrastructure and services.
- While it aimed to enhance urban living conditions, it did not adequately address air quality concerns directly.
- The program's primary objectives revolved around water supply, sewerage, and urban transport, with less emphasis on air pollution control.
Correct Answer Justification
- Given that Statement-I is accurate, as the NCAP was indeed launched due to worsening air quality, it is correct.
- However, Statement-II is misleading; AMRUT 1.0 did not sufficiently tackle air quality issues, making it incorrect.
Therefore, the correct interpretation is:
- Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
This aligns with option 'C' as the correct answer.
The statements provided address two key initiatives concerning air quality and urban development in India.
Statement-I: NCAP and Air Quality
- The National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) was indeed launched in response to the alarming deterioration of air quality in several Indian cities.
- This initiative aims to tackle air pollution through a systematic approach, involving various stakeholders and actions to improve air quality.
Statement-II: AMRUT 1.0 and Air Quality
- AMRUT (Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation) 1.0 primarily focused on urban infrastructure and services.
- While it aimed to enhance urban living conditions, it did not adequately address air quality concerns directly.
- The program's primary objectives revolved around water supply, sewerage, and urban transport, with less emphasis on air pollution control.
Correct Answer Justification
- Given that Statement-I is accurate, as the NCAP was indeed launched due to worsening air quality, it is correct.
- However, Statement-II is misleading; AMRUT 1.0 did not sufficiently tackle air quality issues, making it incorrect.
Therefore, the correct interpretation is:
- Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
This aligns with option 'C' as the correct answer.
She was a prominent ruler of the Holkar dynasty; British historian John Keay called her ‘The Philosopher Queen’ for her insightful political observations. She was - a)Rani Durgavati
- b)Rani Chennamma
- c)Keladi Chennamma
- d)Rani Ahilyabai
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
She was a prominent ruler of the Holkar dynasty; British historian John Keay called her ‘The Philosopher Queen’ for her insightful political observations. She was
a)
Rani Durgavati
b)
Rani Chennamma
c)
Keladi Chennamma
d)
Rani Ahilyabai
|
Kalyan Kulkarni answered |
Rani Ahilyabai - The Philosopher Queen
Rani Ahilyabai was a prominent ruler of the Holkar dynasty in India. British historian John Keay referred to her as 'The Philosopher Queen' due to her insightful political observations and leadership qualities.
Leadership in the Holkar Dynasty
Rani Ahilyabai ruled the Malwa region of India with great wisdom and compassion. She was known for her just and fair governance, as well as her efforts to promote peace and prosperity in her kingdom.
Architectural Patronage
Rani Ahilyabai was also known for her patronage of architecture and construction. She commissioned numerous temples, ghats, and other public works that still stand as a testament to her legacy.
Legacy
Rani Ahilyabai's reign is remembered as a golden age in the history of the Holkar dynasty. Her commitment to good governance, religious tolerance, and public welfare earned her widespread admiration both during her lifetime and in the centuries that followed.
Conclusion
In conclusion, Rani Ahilyabai was a remarkable ruler who left a lasting impact on Indian history. Her political acumen, compassion, and leadership make her a figure worth studying and celebrating.
Rani Ahilyabai was a prominent ruler of the Holkar dynasty in India. British historian John Keay referred to her as 'The Philosopher Queen' due to her insightful political observations and leadership qualities.
Leadership in the Holkar Dynasty
Rani Ahilyabai ruled the Malwa region of India with great wisdom and compassion. She was known for her just and fair governance, as well as her efforts to promote peace and prosperity in her kingdom.
Architectural Patronage
Rani Ahilyabai was also known for her patronage of architecture and construction. She commissioned numerous temples, ghats, and other public works that still stand as a testament to her legacy.
Legacy
Rani Ahilyabai's reign is remembered as a golden age in the history of the Holkar dynasty. Her commitment to good governance, religious tolerance, and public welfare earned her widespread admiration both during her lifetime and in the centuries that followed.
Conclusion
In conclusion, Rani Ahilyabai was a remarkable ruler who left a lasting impact on Indian history. Her political acumen, compassion, and leadership make her a figure worth studying and celebrating.
Consider the following statements: - The G7 consists of France, Germany, Italy, the UK, Japan, the USA, and Canada.
- The G7 was formed in response to the 1973 oil crisis.
- India is a permanent member of the G7.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- a)Only one
- b)Only two
- c)All three
- d)None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
- The G7 consists of France, Germany, Italy, the UK, Japan, the USA, and Canada.
- The G7 was formed in response to the 1973 oil crisis.
- India is a permanent member of the G7.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
a)
Only one
b)
Only two
c)
All three
d)
None
|
|
T.S Academy answered |
- Statement 1 is correct: The G7 consists of France, Germany, Italy, the UK, Japan, the USA, and Canada.
- Statement 2 is correct: The G7 was formed in response to the 1973 oil crisis.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: India is not a permanent member of the G7.
Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): The Global Gender Gap Report 2024 highlights that the largest gender disparities persist in Political Empowerment and Economic Participation & Opportunity.
Reason (R): These disparities are due to the increased caregiving responsibilities on women and lower representation in leadership roles.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- a)Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) is the correct explanation for Assertion (A)
- b)Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) is not the correct explanation for Assertion (A)
- c)Assertion (A) is correct but Reason (R) is incorrect
- d)Assertion (A) is incorrect but Reason (R) is correct
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): The Global Gender Gap Report 2024 highlights that the largest gender disparities persist in Political Empowerment and Economic Participation & Opportunity.
Reason (R): These disparities are due to the increased caregiving responsibilities on women and lower representation in leadership roles.
Assertion (A): The Global Gender Gap Report 2024 highlights that the largest gender disparities persist in Political Empowerment and Economic Participation & Opportunity.
Reason (R): These disparities are due to the increased caregiving responsibilities on women and lower representation in leadership roles.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) is the correct explanation for Assertion (A)
b)
Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) is not the correct explanation for Assertion (A)
c)
Assertion (A) is correct but Reason (R) is incorrect
d)
Assertion (A) is incorrect but Reason (R) is correct
|
Lakshya Ias answered |
Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct. The Global Gender Gap Report 2024 highlights that the largest gender disparities persist in Political Empowerment and Economic Participation & Opportunity, and these disparities are due to factors such as increased caregiving responsibilities on women and lower representation in leadership roles.
Kendu leaves are primarily used in the production of which of the following products? - a)Paper
- b)Bidi
- c)Tea
- d)Furniture
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Kendu leaves are primarily used in the production of which of the following products?
a)
Paper
b)
Bidi
c)
Tea
d)
Furniture
|
Bhaskar Roy answered |
Kendu Leaves in the Production of Bidis
Kendu leaves, also known as tendu or bidi leaves, are primarily used in the production of bidis, which are small, hand-rolled cigarettes popular in India. Here's how kendu leaves are utilized in the bidi-making process:
1. Wrapping Material
- Kendu leaves are used as the outer wrapping material for bidis.
- The leaves are dried and then rolled around a mixture of tobacco and other ingredients to form the bidi.
2. Flavor and Aroma
- Kendu leaves add a distinct flavor and aroma to bidis when burned.
- Smokers often appreciate the unique taste and fragrance that kendu leaves provide.
3. Traditional Practice
- Bidi-making using kendu leaves has been a traditional practice in many regions of India.
- The use of kendu leaves in bidi production has cultural and historical significance.
4. Economic Importance
- The bidi industry provides employment and income for many individuals involved in various stages of production.
- Kendu leaves play a crucial role in sustaining this industry and supporting livelihoods.
In conclusion, kendu leaves are predominantly used in the production of bidis, serving as the wrapping material that imparts flavor and aroma to these hand-rolled cigarettes. This practice holds cultural significance and contributes to the economic well-being of many communities in India.
Kendu leaves, also known as tendu or bidi leaves, are primarily used in the production of bidis, which are small, hand-rolled cigarettes popular in India. Here's how kendu leaves are utilized in the bidi-making process:
1. Wrapping Material
- Kendu leaves are used as the outer wrapping material for bidis.
- The leaves are dried and then rolled around a mixture of tobacco and other ingredients to form the bidi.
2. Flavor and Aroma
- Kendu leaves add a distinct flavor and aroma to bidis when burned.
- Smokers often appreciate the unique taste and fragrance that kendu leaves provide.
3. Traditional Practice
- Bidi-making using kendu leaves has been a traditional practice in many regions of India.
- The use of kendu leaves in bidi production has cultural and historical significance.
4. Economic Importance
- The bidi industry provides employment and income for many individuals involved in various stages of production.
- Kendu leaves play a crucial role in sustaining this industry and supporting livelihoods.
In conclusion, kendu leaves are predominantly used in the production of bidis, serving as the wrapping material that imparts flavor and aroma to these hand-rolled cigarettes. This practice holds cultural significance and contributes to the economic well-being of many communities in India.
Consider the following statements about the Global Plastics Treaty: - The treaty aims to reduce plastic pollution by setting legally binding targets for all member countries.
- The treaty was adopted by the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change in 2024.
- The treaty focuses solely on reducing single-use plastics.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?- a)Only one
- b)Only two
- c)All three
- d)None
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements about the Global Plastics Treaty:
- The treaty aims to reduce plastic pollution by setting legally binding targets for all member countries.
- The treaty was adopted by the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change in 2024.
- The treaty focuses solely on reducing single-use plastics.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
Only one
b)
Only two
c)
All three
d)
None
|
|
Capstone Ias Learning answered |
- The Global Plastics Treaty, initiated in 2021, is a pivotal international effort aimed at combating plastic pollution on a global scale. Established during the fifth UN Environment Assembly in Nairobi, Kenya, the treaty has progressed through various meetings worldwide, including Dakar, Senegal; Uruguay; Paris, France; Nairobi, Kenya; and Canada, with the final meeting set for South Korea.
- It aims to reduce plastic pollution by setting legally binding targets for all member countries. The goal is to create a unified international approach to tackle plastic waste.
- While the treaty does address single-use plastics, it is not limited to this aspect alone. The treaty encompasses broader measures, including plastic waste management and the promotion of circular economy practices.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The demand for Special Category Status (SCS) for Andhra Pradesh is based on its geographical and socio-economic disadvantages.
Statement-II: The 14th Finance Commission excluded most states from SCS, focusing only on Northeastern and three hill states.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
- b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
- c)Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- d)Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The demand for Special Category Status (SCS) for Andhra Pradesh is based on its geographical and socio-economic disadvantages.
Statement-II: The 14th Finance Commission excluded most states from SCS, focusing only on Northeastern and three hill states.
Statement-I: The demand for Special Category Status (SCS) for Andhra Pradesh is based on its geographical and socio-economic disadvantages.
Statement-II: The 14th Finance Commission excluded most states from SCS, focusing only on Northeastern and three hill states.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
b)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
c)
Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
d)
Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
|
Goel UPSC Coaching Center answered |
- Statement-I is correct. The demand for SCS for Andhra Pradesh is based on its geographical and socio-economic disadvantages.
- Statement-II is correct. The 14th Finance Commission reserved SCS for Northeastern and three hill states.
- Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I as SCS is not solely about geographical and socio-economic disadvantages but also about political considerations and recommendations from Finance Commissions.
Consider the following statements: - The Traditional Knowledge Digital Library (TKDL) aims to preserve medicinal formulations to prevent erroneous patents.
- The Patents (Amendment) Act, 2005, requires disclosure of the origin of biological resources in patent applications.
- The National Bureau of Plant Genetic Resources (NBPGR) preserves and utilizes animal genetic diversity in India.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- a)Only one
- b)Only two
- c)All three
- d)None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
- The Traditional Knowledge Digital Library (TKDL) aims to preserve medicinal formulations to prevent erroneous patents.
- The Patents (Amendment) Act, 2005, requires disclosure of the origin of biological resources in patent applications.
- The National Bureau of Plant Genetic Resources (NBPGR) preserves and utilizes animal genetic diversity in India.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
a)
Only one
b)
Only two
c)
All three
d)
None
|
|
Kaavya Basak answered |
Explanation:
Traditional Knowledge Digital Library (TKDL)
- The statement regarding TKDL aiming to preserve medicinal formulations to prevent erroneous patents is correct. TKDL is a digital database that documents traditional knowledge related to medicinal formulations to prevent the grant of patents on existing knowledge.
- Therefore, this statement is correct.
Patents (Amendment) Act, 2005
- The statement about the Patents (Amendment) Act, 2005, requiring disclosure of the origin of biological resources in patent applications is also correct. The amendment mandates the disclosure of the source of biological resources and associated traditional knowledge in patent applications.
- Hence, this statement is correct.
National Bureau of Plant Genetic Resources (NBPGR)
- The statement regarding the NBPGR preserving and utilizing animal genetic diversity in India is incorrect. The NBPGR primarily focuses on conserving plant genetic resources in the country and does not deal with animal genetic diversity.
- Therefore, this statement is incorrect.
Therefore, out of the three statements provided:
- Only two statements are correct, which are about TKDL and the Patents (Amendment) Act, 2005.
- The statement about the NBPGR preserving and utilizing animal genetic diversity in India is incorrect.
Traditional Knowledge Digital Library (TKDL)
- The statement regarding TKDL aiming to preserve medicinal formulations to prevent erroneous patents is correct. TKDL is a digital database that documents traditional knowledge related to medicinal formulations to prevent the grant of patents on existing knowledge.
- Therefore, this statement is correct.
Patents (Amendment) Act, 2005
- The statement about the Patents (Amendment) Act, 2005, requiring disclosure of the origin of biological resources in patent applications is also correct. The amendment mandates the disclosure of the source of biological resources and associated traditional knowledge in patent applications.
- Hence, this statement is correct.
National Bureau of Plant Genetic Resources (NBPGR)
- The statement regarding the NBPGR preserving and utilizing animal genetic diversity in India is incorrect. The NBPGR primarily focuses on conserving plant genetic resources in the country and does not deal with animal genetic diversity.
- Therefore, this statement is incorrect.
Therefore, out of the three statements provided:
- Only two statements are correct, which are about TKDL and the Patents (Amendment) Act, 2005.
- The statement about the NBPGR preserving and utilizing animal genetic diversity in India is incorrect.
‘Pravaah Portal’, recently seen in the news, is launched by which institution? - a)Small Industries Development Bank of India
- b)National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
- c)Reserve Bank of India
- d)NITI Aayog
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
‘Pravaah Portal’, recently seen in the news, is launched by which institution?
a)
Small Industries Development Bank of India
b)
National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
c)
Reserve Bank of India
d)
NITI Aayog
|
K.L Institute answered |
Context: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) launched three major initiatives.
- G-Sec Mobile App: Enables retail investors to transact in government securities (G-Secs) using smartphones.
- PRAVAAH Portal: A centralized web-based platform for individuals or entities to apply for authorizations, licenses, or regulatory approvals from the RBI, enhancing efficiency in processing applications.
- Fintech Repository: A data storehouse for Indian FinTech firms to help understand the sector better and design appropriate policies. Additionally, the EmTech Repository for RBI-regulated entities will track the adoption of emerging technologies like AI and blockchain.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The PESA Act was enacted in 1996 to provide self-governance for people living in tribal areas through traditional village assemblies known as Gram Sabhas.
Statement-II: The PESA Act primarily focuses on empowering urban local bodies in India.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- c)Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- d)Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The PESA Act was enacted in 1996 to provide self-governance for people living in tribal areas through traditional village assemblies known as Gram Sabhas.
Statement-II: The PESA Act primarily focuses on empowering urban local bodies in India.
Statement-I: The PESA Act was enacted in 1996 to provide self-governance for people living in tribal areas through traditional village assemblies known as Gram Sabhas.
Statement-II: The PESA Act primarily focuses on empowering urban local bodies in India.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
b)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
c)
Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
d)
Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
|
|
T.S Academy answered |
Statement-I correctly explains the purpose and enactment of the PESA Act, highlighting its focus on self-governance in tribal areas through Gram Sabhas. On the other hand, Statement-II inaccurately suggests that the PESA Act primarily empowers urban local bodies, which is incorrect as the Act specifically pertains to tribal areas and their governance structures.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: NOTA votes in Indian elections are counted as 'invalid votes' and do not alter the election outcomes.
Statement-II: The Supreme Court mandated the introduction of NOTA in 2013 to empower voters.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
- b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
- c)Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- d)Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: NOTA votes in Indian elections are counted as 'invalid votes' and do not alter the election outcomes.
Statement-II: The Supreme Court mandated the introduction of NOTA in 2013 to empower voters.
Statement-I: NOTA votes in Indian elections are counted as 'invalid votes' and do not alter the election outcomes.
Statement-II: The Supreme Court mandated the introduction of NOTA in 2013 to empower voters.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
b)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
c)
Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
d)
Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
|
EduRev UPSC answered |
Statement-I is correct. NOTA votes in Indian elections are counted as 'invalid votes' and do not alter the election outcomes.
Statement-II is correct. The Supreme Court mandated the introduction of NOTA in 2013 to empower voters.
Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I as NOTA being 'invalid votes' is a procedural detail and not the reason for its introduction.
Statement-II is correct. The Supreme Court mandated the introduction of NOTA in 2013 to empower voters.
Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I as NOTA being 'invalid votes' is a procedural detail and not the reason for its introduction.
Consider the following statements regarding the evolution of the Indian music system:1. The roots of Indian music stretch back to the Sama Veda, where slokas were harmonized with music.2. Haripala coined the terms Hindustani and Carnatic music, marking the distinction between northern and southern musical traditions.3. Pandit Vishnu Narayan Bhatkhande played a pivotal role in systematizing Carnatic Ragas under the 'Thaat' system.- a)1 Only
- b)2 and 3 Only
- c)1 and 2 Only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding the evolution of the Indian music system:
1. The roots of Indian music stretch back to the Sama Veda, where slokas were harmonized with music.
2. Haripala coined the terms Hindustani and Carnatic music, marking the distinction between northern and southern musical traditions.
3. Pandit Vishnu Narayan Bhatkhande played a pivotal role in systematizing Carnatic Ragas under the 'Thaat' system.
a)
1 Only
b)
2 and 3 Only
c)
1 and 2 Only
d)
1, 2 and 3
|
|
Swati Sharma answered |
Overview of Indian Music Evolution
The Indian music system has a rich historical foundation, evolving over centuries. Let's analyze the statements regarding its evolution:
1. Roots in the Sama Veda
- The roots of Indian music indeed trace back to the Sama Veda.
- This ancient text harmonized slokas (verses) with music, showcasing the early integration of melody and rhythm.
2. Haripala and the Distinction of Music Traditions
- The statement regarding Haripala is incorrect.
- While he contributed to musicology, he did not coin the terms Hindustani and Carnatic music. These distinctions evolved over time due to regional differences in style, rather than being attributed to a single individual.
3. Pandit Vishnu Narayan Bhatkhande's Contribution
- This statement is also incorrect.
- Pandit Bhatkhande is known for his significant role in systematizing Hindustani music, introducing the 'Thaat' system.
- He did not focus on the Carnatic Ragas but rather on Hindustani music, thus highlighting a misunderstanding in the statement.
Conclusion
Given this evaluation:
- Statement 1 is correct.
- Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 'C': 1 Only.
The Indian music system has a rich historical foundation, evolving over centuries. Let's analyze the statements regarding its evolution:
1. Roots in the Sama Veda
- The roots of Indian music indeed trace back to the Sama Veda.
- This ancient text harmonized slokas (verses) with music, showcasing the early integration of melody and rhythm.
2. Haripala and the Distinction of Music Traditions
- The statement regarding Haripala is incorrect.
- While he contributed to musicology, he did not coin the terms Hindustani and Carnatic music. These distinctions evolved over time due to regional differences in style, rather than being attributed to a single individual.
3. Pandit Vishnu Narayan Bhatkhande's Contribution
- This statement is also incorrect.
- Pandit Bhatkhande is known for his significant role in systematizing Hindustani music, introducing the 'Thaat' system.
- He did not focus on the Carnatic Ragas but rather on Hindustani music, thus highlighting a misunderstanding in the statement.
Conclusion
Given this evaluation:
- Statement 1 is correct.
- Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 'C': 1 Only.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Indian music evolved in the medieval period with the introduction of terms Hindustani and Carnatic music by Haripala.
Statement-II: During the medieval period, Indian music assimilated influences from Arabian and Persian musical systems due to the arrival of Muslim rulers in North India.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- c)Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- d)Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Indian music evolved in the medieval period with the introduction of terms Hindustani and Carnatic music by Haripala.
Statement-II: During the medieval period, Indian music assimilated influences from Arabian and Persian musical systems due to the arrival of Muslim rulers in North India.
Statement-I: Indian music evolved in the medieval period with the introduction of terms Hindustani and Carnatic music by Haripala.
Statement-II: During the medieval period, Indian music assimilated influences from Arabian and Persian musical systems due to the arrival of Muslim rulers in North India.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
b)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
c)
Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
d)
Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
|
Master Training Institute answered |
Statement-I correctly highlights the introduction of terms Hindustani and Carnatic music by Haripala, which marked a significant development in the evolution of Indian music during the medieval period.
However, Statement-II inaccurately suggests that Indian music assimilated influences from Arabian and Persian musical systems solely due to the arrival of Muslim rulers in North India. While it's true that there were influences, the statement oversimplifies the complex interactions and exchanges that shaped Indian music during that period. The evolution and influences on Indian music were more nuanced and multifaceted than solely attributing it to the arrival of Muslim rulers.
However, Statement-II inaccurately suggests that Indian music assimilated influences from Arabian and Persian musical systems solely due to the arrival of Muslim rulers in North India. While it's true that there were influences, the statement oversimplifies the complex interactions and exchanges that shaped Indian music during that period. The evolution and influences on Indian music were more nuanced and multifaceted than solely attributing it to the arrival of Muslim rulers.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The Household Consumption Expenditure Survey provides data for calculating Monthly Per Capita Consumer Expenditure (MPCE).
Statement-II: The HCES covers the entire Indian Union, excluding a few inaccessible villages.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
- b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
- c)Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- d)Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The Household Consumption Expenditure Survey provides data for calculating Monthly Per Capita Consumer Expenditure (MPCE).
Statement-II: The HCES covers the entire Indian Union, excluding a few inaccessible villages.
Statement-I: The Household Consumption Expenditure Survey provides data for calculating Monthly Per Capita Consumer Expenditure (MPCE).
Statement-II: The HCES covers the entire Indian Union, excluding a few inaccessible villages.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
b)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
c)
Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
d)
Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
|
|
EduRev UPSC answered |
Statement-I is correct. The HCES provides data for calculating Monthly Per Capita Consumer Expenditure (MPCE).
Statement-II is correct. The HCES covers the entire Indian Union, excluding a few inaccessible villages.
Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I as the coverage of the survey does not directly explain the calculation of MPCE, which is based on the data collected.
Statement-II is correct. The HCES covers the entire Indian Union, excluding a few inaccessible villages.
Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I as the coverage of the survey does not directly explain the calculation of MPCE, which is based on the data collected.
Consider the following statements: - The Household Consumption Expenditure Survey (HCES) is conducted every 5 years by the National Statistical Office (NSO).
- Milk and Milk Products expenditure is highest in southern states like Kerala and Tamil Nadu.
- Non-food expenditure has shown an increasing trend over the years.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- a)Only one
- b)Only two
- c)All three
- d)None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
- The Household Consumption Expenditure Survey (HCES) is conducted every 5 years by the National Statistical Office (NSO).
- Milk and Milk Products expenditure is highest in southern states like Kerala and Tamil Nadu.
- Non-food expenditure has shown an increasing trend over the years.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
a)
Only one
b)
Only two
c)
All three
d)
None
|
|
Master Training Institute answered |
- Statement 1 is correct. The HCES is conducted every 5 years by the NSO.
- Statement 2 is incorrect. Milk and Milk Products expenditure is highest in northern states like Haryana and Rajasthan.
- Statement 3 is correct. Non-food expenditure has shown an increasing trend over the years.
Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): Bihar is seeking Special Category Status to address its significant socio-economic challenges.
Reason (R): Granting Special Category Status automatically leads to higher industrial development.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- a)Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) is the correct explanation for Assertion (A)
- b)Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) is not the correct explanation
- c)Assertion (A) is correct but Reason (R) is incorrect
- d)Assertion (A) is incorrect but Reason (R) is correct
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): Bihar is seeking Special Category Status to address its significant socio-economic challenges.
Reason (R): Granting Special Category Status automatically leads to higher industrial development.
Assertion (A): Bihar is seeking Special Category Status to address its significant socio-economic challenges.
Reason (R): Granting Special Category Status automatically leads to higher industrial development.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) is the correct explanation for Assertion (A)
b)
Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) is not the correct explanation
c)
Assertion (A) is correct but Reason (R) is incorrect
d)
Assertion (A) is incorrect but Reason (R) is correct
|
|
Upsc Toppers answered |
Assertion (A) is correct. Bihar is seeking Special Category Status to address its significant socio-economic challenges.
Reason (R) is incorrect. Granting Special Category Status does not automatically lead to higher industrial development. It provides higher financial assistance and other benefits, but industrial development depends on several other factors, including policy measures and investment climate.
Reason (R) is incorrect. Granting Special Category Status does not automatically lead to higher industrial development. It provides higher financial assistance and other benefits, but industrial development depends on several other factors, including policy measures and investment climate.
Consider the following statements:
- Trans fatty acids are naturally found in large quantities in fruits and vegetables.
- Consumption of trans fatty acids has been shown to reduce the risk of heart disease.
- Trans fatty acids are produced during the hydrogenation of vegetable oils.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
- a)Only one
- b)Only two
- c)All three
- d)None
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
- Trans fatty acids are naturally found in large quantities in fruits and vegetables.
- Consumption of trans fatty acids has been shown to reduce the risk of heart disease.
- Trans fatty acids are produced during the hydrogenation of vegetable oils.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
Only one
b)
Only two
c)
All three
d)
None
|
|
Goel UPSC Coaching Center answered |
Trans fatty acids, also known as trans fats, are a type of unsaturated fat that occur in small amounts in nature but are largely produced industrially. They are formed during the process of hydrogenation, which is used to solidify liquid vegetable oils. This process changes the chemical structure of the fats, resulting in the creation of trans fats. Unlike other types of fats, trans fats are not essential and do not promote good health. In fact, their consumption has been linked to an increased risk of heart disease, which is why health experts recommend limiting their intake.
Consider the following pairs:
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?- a)Only one pair
- b)Only two pairs
- c)All three pairs
- d)None of the pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following pairs:
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
a)
Only one pair
b)
Only two pairs
c)
All three pairs
d)
None of the pairs
|
|
Goel UPSC Coaching Center answered |
- Pair 1 is correctly matched: UNESCO's Greening Curriculum Guidance is part of the Greening Education Partnership.
- Pair 2 is correctly matched: The "Path to Peace" Summit is related to Russia-Ukraine conflict resolution.
- Pair 3 is correctly matched: The 50th G7 Summit was held in Italy.
Consider the following statements:Statement-I: The AMRUT scheme has had significant positive impacts on women's lives by improving access to water.
Statement-II: Women can now spend less time fetching water and more time on productive activities.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.
- b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.
- c)Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
- d)Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The AMRUT scheme has had significant positive impacts on women's lives by improving access to water.
Statement-II: Women can now spend less time fetching water and more time on productive activities.
Statement-II: Women can now spend less time fetching water and more time on productive activities.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.
b)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.
c)
Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
d)
Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
|
Academic Studio answered |
The AMRUT scheme has indeed positively impacted women's lives by improving water access.
As a result, women can now allocate their time to more productive activities, making Statement-II the correct explanation for Statement-I.
As a result, women can now allocate their time to more productive activities, making Statement-II the correct explanation for Statement-I.
Consider the following statements: - Emperor Wu of the Han Dynasty sent Zhang Qian to explore the "Western Regions."
- Zhang Qian established the Tarim Basin route, known as the "Father of the Silk Road."
- The new northern route of the Silk Road was established between 420-850 CE.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- a)Only one
- b)Only two
- c)All three
- d)None
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
- Emperor Wu of the Han Dynasty sent Zhang Qian to explore the "Western Regions."
- Zhang Qian established the Tarim Basin route, known as the "Father of the Silk Road."
- The new northern route of the Silk Road was established between 420-850 CE.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
a)
Only one
b)
Only two
c)
All three
d)
None
|
|
K.L Institute answered |
- Statement 1 is correct: Emperor Wu sent Zhang Qian to explore the Western Regions.
- Statement 2 is correct: Zhang Qian is known as the Father of the Silk Road and established the Tarim Basin route.
- Statement 3 is correct: The new northern route was established between 420-850 CE.
In which ADR method does a neutral third party facilitate a discussion between the parties to help them reach a mutually acceptable agreement, without imposing a decision? - a)Arbitration
- b)Mediation
- c)Negotiation
- d)Conciliation
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
In which ADR method does a neutral third party facilitate a discussion between the parties to help them reach a mutually acceptable agreement, without imposing a decision?
a)
Arbitration
b)
Mediation
c)
Negotiation
d)
Conciliation
|
Lohit Matani answered |
In mediation, a neutral third party (the mediator) helps the disputing parties communicate and negotiate to reach a voluntary agreement. The mediator does not impose a decision on the parties.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The "One Belt, One Road" initiative aims to enhance connectivity across multiple regions.
Statement-II: The initiative focuses solely on reviving the original Silk Route for trade.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
- b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
- c)Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- d)Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The "One Belt, One Road" initiative aims to enhance connectivity across multiple regions.
Statement-II: The initiative focuses solely on reviving the original Silk Route for trade.
Statement-I: The "One Belt, One Road" initiative aims to enhance connectivity across multiple regions.
Statement-II: The initiative focuses solely on reviving the original Silk Route for trade.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
b)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
c)
Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
d)
Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
|
Divey Sethi answered |
- Statement-I is correct: The "One Belt, One Road" initiative aims to enhance connectivity across multiple regions.
- Statement-II is incorrect: The initiative does not focus solely on reviving the original Silk Route for trade; it includes various infrastructure projects.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The Traditional Knowledge Digital Library (TKDL) is an initiative by the Indian government to document traditional knowledge in digital form.
Statement-II: The main objective of TKDL is to preserve traditional knowledge for future generations.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.
- b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.
- c)Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
- d)Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The Traditional Knowledge Digital Library (TKDL) is an initiative by the Indian government to document traditional knowledge in digital form.
Statement-II: The main objective of TKDL is to preserve traditional knowledge for future generations.
Statement-I: The Traditional Knowledge Digital Library (TKDL) is an initiative by the Indian government to document traditional knowledge in digital form.
Statement-II: The main objective of TKDL is to preserve traditional knowledge for future generations.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.
b)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.
c)
Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
d)
Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
|
|
Divey Sethi answered |
Statement-I is correct because TKDL documents traditional knowledge in digital form.
Statement-II is correct, but the primary objective of TKDL is to prevent erroneous patents by providing accessible documentation of traditional knowledge.
Statement-II is correct, but the primary objective of TKDL is to prevent erroneous patents by providing accessible documentation of traditional knowledge.
What is a Heat Wave as per the IMD criteria based on departure from normal maximum temperature?- a)Departure from normal is 5°C to 6°C
- b)Severe Heat Wave: above 7°C
- c)More than 40°C: 4°C to 5°C
- d)Departure from normal is 6°C or more
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
What is a Heat Wave as per the IMD criteria based on departure from normal maximum temperature?
a)
Departure from normal is 5°C to 6°C
b)
Severe Heat Wave: above 7°C
c)
More than 40°C: 4°C to 5°C
d)
Departure from normal is 6°C or more
|
|
Ias Masters answered |
According to the IMD criteria, a Heat Wave is determined based on the departure from the normal maximum temperature of a station. When the departure from normal is 6°C or more, it falls under the category specified in the criteria. This definition helps in identifying and categorizing heat waves based on specific temperature variations, aiding in better preparedness and response strategies during periods of high temperatures.
Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): The National Health Claim Exchange (NHCX) aims to simplify cashless claims in India.
Reason (R): The NHCX was launched by the National Health Authority (NHA) and the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI).Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- a)Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) is the correct explanation for Assertion (A)
- b)Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) is not the correct explanation for Assertion (A)
- c)Assertion (A) is correct but Reason (R) is incorrect
- d)Assertion (A) is incorrect but Reason (R) is correct
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): The National Health Claim Exchange (NHCX) aims to simplify cashless claims in India.
Reason (R): The NHCX was launched by the National Health Authority (NHA) and the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI).
Assertion (A): The National Health Claim Exchange (NHCX) aims to simplify cashless claims in India.
Reason (R): The NHCX was launched by the National Health Authority (NHA) and the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI).
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) is the correct explanation for Assertion (A)
b)
Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) is not the correct explanation for Assertion (A)
c)
Assertion (A) is correct but Reason (R) is incorrect
d)
Assertion (A) is incorrect but Reason (R) is correct
|
|
Lohit Matani answered |
Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct, and Reason (R) correctly explains why the NHCX aims to simplify cashless claims—because it was launched by the NHA and IRDAI to centralize and streamline the process.
Consider the following statements: - The National Gene Bank in India safeguards genetic diversity for future use.
- The Plant Varieties and Farmers’ Rights (PPV&FR) Act, 2001 ensures fair benefits for farmers and breeders sharing Plant Genetic Resources.
- The Trademark Act, 1999, mandates the disclosure of biological resource origins in patent applications.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- a)Only one
- b)Only two
- c)All three
- d)None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
- The National Gene Bank in India safeguards genetic diversity for future use.
- The Plant Varieties and Farmers’ Rights (PPV&FR) Act, 2001 ensures fair benefits for farmers and breeders sharing Plant Genetic Resources.
- The Trademark Act, 1999, mandates the disclosure of biological resource origins in patent applications.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
a)
Only one
b)
Only two
c)
All three
d)
None
|
BT Educators answered |
- The National Gene Bank safeguards genetic diversity for future use.
- The PPV&FR Act, 2001 ensures fair benefits for breeders and farmers sharing Plant Genetic Resources.
- The Trademark Act, 1999 does not mandate the disclosure of biological resource origins in patent applications; this is covered by the Patents (Amendment) Act, 2005.
Consider the following statements:Statement-I: AMRUT 2.0 focuses on promoting a circular water economy.
Statement-II: The scheme includes the development of City Water Balance Plans (CWBP) for water management.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.
- b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.
- c)Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
- d)Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: AMRUT 2.0 focuses on promoting a circular water economy.
Statement-II: The scheme includes the development of City Water Balance Plans (CWBP) for water management.
Statement-II: The scheme includes the development of City Water Balance Plans (CWBP) for water management.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.
b)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.
c)
Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
d)
Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
|
Innovative Classes answered |
- AMRUT 2.0 promotes a circular water economy.
- The development of City Water Balance Plans (CWBP) is a key component in achieving this goal, making Statement-II the correct explanation for Statement-I.
Consider the following pairs:
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?- a)Only one pair
- b)Only two pairs
- c)All three pairs
- d)None of the pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following pairs:
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
a)
Only one pair
b)
Only two pairs
c)
All three pairs
d)
None of the pairs
|
|
Goel UPSC Coaching Center answered |
- Pair 1 is correctly matched: The Great Green Wall Initiative is an African project.
- Pair 2 is correctly matched: The India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor involves India, the Middle East, and Europe.
- Pair 3 is correctly matched: The One Belt, One Road Initiative is a Chinese initiative.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The AMRUT 2.0 scheme aims to achieve universal water supply coverage.
Statement-II: This objective is part of the mission to improve basic infrastructure in selected cities.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.
- b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.
- c)Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
- d)Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The AMRUT 2.0 scheme aims to achieve universal water supply coverage.
Statement-II: This objective is part of the mission to improve basic infrastructure in selected cities.
Statement-I: The AMRUT 2.0 scheme aims to achieve universal water supply coverage.
Statement-II: This objective is part of the mission to improve basic infrastructure in selected cities.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.
b)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.
c)
Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
d)
Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
|
|
Innovative Classes answered |
- AMRUT 2.0 indeed aims to achieve universal water supply coverage.
- This objective is part of the mission to enhance basic urban infrastructure, making Statement-II the correct explanation for Statement-I.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The National Gene Bank in India is designed to preserve both plant and animal genetic resources.
Statement-II: The National Bureau of Plant Genetic Resources (NBPGR) is responsible for the preservation of plant genetic diversity.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.
- b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.
- c)Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
- d)Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The National Gene Bank in India is designed to preserve both plant and animal genetic resources.
Statement-II: The National Bureau of Plant Genetic Resources (NBPGR) is responsible for the preservation of plant genetic diversity.
Statement-I: The National Gene Bank in India is designed to preserve both plant and animal genetic resources.
Statement-II: The National Bureau of Plant Genetic Resources (NBPGR) is responsible for the preservation of plant genetic diversity.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.
b)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.
c)
Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
d)
Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
|
|
Master Training Institute answered |
Statement-I is correct; the National Gene Bank preserves both plant and animal genetic resources.
Statement-II is correct; NBPGR focuses on preserving plant genetic diversity. However, Statement-II does not explain Statement-I.
Statement-II is correct; NBPGR focuses on preserving plant genetic diversity. However, Statement-II does not explain Statement-I.
Consider the following pairs:
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?- a)Only one pair
- b)Only two pairs
- c)Only three pairs
- d)All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following pairs:
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
a)
Only one pair
b)
Only two pairs
c)
Only three pairs
d)
All four pairs
|
|
Academic Studio answered |
- Pair 1 is correct. The Global Gender Gap Report is published by the World Economic Forum.
- Pair 2 is correct. The State of Ocean Report is published by UNESCO.
- Pair 3 is correct. The Household Consumption Expenditure Survey is conducted by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation.
- Pair 4 is correct. The National Infrastructure Pipeline is managed by NITI Aayog.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The WIPO treaty requires contracting parties to enforce disclosure obligations for patent applicants regarding the origin of genetic resources in claimed inventions.
Statement-II: This requirement helps prevent the misappropriation of traditional knowledge and genetic resources.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.
- b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.
- c)Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
- d)Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The WIPO treaty requires contracting parties to enforce disclosure obligations for patent applicants regarding the origin of genetic resources in claimed inventions.
Statement-II: This requirement helps prevent the misappropriation of traditional knowledge and genetic resources.
Statement-I: The WIPO treaty requires contracting parties to enforce disclosure obligations for patent applicants regarding the origin of genetic resources in claimed inventions.
Statement-II: This requirement helps prevent the misappropriation of traditional knowledge and genetic resources.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.
b)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.
c)
Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
d)
Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
|
|
Divey Sethi answered |
- Statement-I is correct because the WIPO treaty mandates disclosure of the origin of genetic resources in patent applications.
- Statement-II is correct and explains that this requirement helps prevent the misappropriation of traditional knowledge and genetic resources.
Consider the following pairs:
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?- a)Only one pair
- b)Only two pairs
- c)Only three pairs
- d)All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following pairs:
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
a)
Only one pair
b)
Only two pairs
c)
Only three pairs
d)
All four pairs
|
|
Ias Masters answered |
- Pair 1 is correct. The NHCX is implemented by the IRDAI.
- Pair 2 is correct. The Smart Cities Mission is under the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs.
- Pair 3 is correct. The Bharatmala Project is implemented by the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways.
- Pair 4 is incorrect. PM-eBus Sewa is under the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs, not the Ministry of Heavy Industries.
Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): The Speaker of Lok Sabha has the power to adjourn meetings in the absence of quorum.
Reason (R): The Speaker ensures order and decorum during the proceedings of the House.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- a)Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) is the correct explanation for Assertion (A)
- b)Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) is not the correct explanation for Assertion (A)
- c)Assertion (A) is correct but Reason (R) is incorrect
- d)Assertion (A) is incorrect but Reason (R) is correct
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): The Speaker of Lok Sabha has the power to adjourn meetings in the absence of quorum.
Reason (R): The Speaker ensures order and decorum during the proceedings of the House.
Assertion (A): The Speaker of Lok Sabha has the power to adjourn meetings in the absence of quorum.
Reason (R): The Speaker ensures order and decorum during the proceedings of the House.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) is the correct explanation for Assertion (A)
b)
Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) is not the correct explanation for Assertion (A)
c)
Assertion (A) is correct but Reason (R) is incorrect
d)
Assertion (A) is incorrect but Reason (R) is correct
|
|
K.L Institute answered |
Both statements are correct. The Speaker adjourns meetings in the absence of quorum and ensures order and decorum during the proceedings. However, ensuring order and decorum is not the reason for adjourning meetings due to lack of quorum.
Which of the following statements about Campbell Bay National Park is NOT true? - a)Campbell Bay National Park is located on Little Andaman Island.
- b)The park is part of the Great Nicobar Biosphere Reserve.
- c)Campbell Bay National Park was established in 1992.
- d)The park is home to the Nicobar pigeon and the giant leatherback sea turtle.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following statements about Campbell Bay National Park is NOT true?
a)
Campbell Bay National Park is located on Little Andaman Island.
b)
The park is part of the Great Nicobar Biosphere Reserve.
c)
Campbell Bay National Park was established in 1992.
d)
The park is home to the Nicobar pigeon and the giant leatherback sea turtle.
|
|
Goel UPSC Coaching Center answered |
Campbell Bay National Park is a national park in India, located on the island of Great Nicobar, the largest of the Nicobar Islands in the eastern Indian Ocean, some 190 km to the north of Sumatra. It was gazetted as a national park of India in 1992, and forms part of the Great Nicobar Biosphere Reserve.
Consider the following pairs:1. Narada Muni - Introduced the art of music to humanity and imparted knowledge of Naada Brahma2. Ilango Adigal - Contributed to musical ideas in ancient Tamil culture, documented in Silappadi Kaaram3. Haripala - Coined the term 'Thaat' system in Hindustani music4. Pandit Vishnu Narayan Bhatkhande - Systematized Hindustani Ragas under the 'Thaat' systemHow many pairs given above are correctly matched?- a)Only one pair
- b)Only two pairs
- c)Only three pairs
- d)All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following pairs:
1. Narada Muni - Introduced the art of music to humanity and imparted knowledge of Naada Brahma
2. Ilango Adigal - Contributed to musical ideas in ancient Tamil culture, documented in Silappadi Kaaram
3. Haripala - Coined the term 'Thaat' system in Hindustani music
4. Pandit Vishnu Narayan Bhatkhande - Systematized Hindustani Ragas under the 'Thaat' system
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
a)
Only one pair
b)
Only two pairs
c)
Only three pairs
d)
All four pairs
|
|
Master Training Institute answered |
1. Narada Muni - Correctly matched
Narada Muni is traditionally credited with introducing the art of music to humanity and imparting the knowledge of Naada Brahma, which is the cosmic sound that permeates the universe. This aligns with ancient Indian texts and traditions.
Narada Muni is traditionally credited with introducing the art of music to humanity and imparting the knowledge of Naada Brahma, which is the cosmic sound that permeates the universe. This aligns with ancient Indian texts and traditions.
2. Ilango Adigal - Correctly matched
Ilango Adigal is known for his contributions to the musical ideas in ancient Tamil culture, which are documented in texts like Silappadi Kaaram. His work is significant in the context of early Tamil literature and music.
Ilango Adigal is known for his contributions to the musical ideas in ancient Tamil culture, which are documented in texts like Silappadi Kaaram. His work is significant in the context of early Tamil literature and music.
3. Haripala - Incorrectly matched
Haripala did not coin the term 'Thaat' system. He is known for coining the terms Hindustani and Carnatic music to mark the distinction between northern and southern Indian musical traditions.
Haripala did not coin the term 'Thaat' system. He is known for coining the terms Hindustani and Carnatic music to mark the distinction between northern and southern Indian musical traditions.
4. Pandit Vishnu Narayan Bhatkhande - Correctly matched
Pandit Vishnu Narayan Bhatkhande played a pivotal role in systematizing Hindustani Ragas under the 'Thaat' system. His work laid a structured foundation for musical education and performance in Hindustani classical music.
Pandit Vishnu Narayan Bhatkhande played a pivotal role in systematizing Hindustani Ragas under the 'Thaat' system. His work laid a structured foundation for musical education and performance in Hindustani classical music.
Thus, pairs 1, 2, and 4 are correctly matched, while pair 3 is not.
Answer: Option B
Consider the following pairs related to the Rooftop Solar Programme in India:1. SUPRABHA : Sustainable Partnership for RTS Acceleration in Bharat2. SRISTI : Sustainable Rooftop Implementation for Solar Transfiguration of India3. PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana : Free 300 units of electricity every month4. Suryamitra : Training program for skilled workforce in the solar sectorHow many pairs given above are correctly matched?- a)Only one pair
- b)Only two pairs
- c)Only three pairs
- d)All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following pairs related to the Rooftop Solar Programme in India:
1. SUPRABHA : Sustainable Partnership for RTS Acceleration in Bharat
2. SRISTI : Sustainable Rooftop Implementation for Solar Transfiguration of India
3. PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana : Free 300 units of electricity every month
4. Suryamitra : Training program for skilled workforce in the solar sector
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
a)
Only one pair
b)
Only two pairs
c)
Only three pairs
d)
All four pairs
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Future Foundation Institute answered |
1. SUPRABHA : Sustainable Partnership for RTS Acceleration in Bharat
- This pair is correctly matched. SUPRABHA is an initiative aimed at accelerating the adoption of rooftop solar systems in India.
- This pair is correctly matched. SUPRABHA is an initiative aimed at accelerating the adoption of rooftop solar systems in India.
2. SRISTI : Sustainable Rooftop Implementation for Solar Transfiguration of India
- This pair is correctly matched. SRISTI is aimed at promoting the implementation of rooftop solar systems across India.
- This pair is correctly matched. SRISTI is aimed at promoting the implementation of rooftop solar systems across India.
3. PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana : Free 300 units of electricity every month
- This pair is correctly matched. Under the PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana, participating households can receive 300 units of electricity free every month.
- This pair is correctly matched. Under the PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana, participating households can receive 300 units of electricity free every month.
4. Suryamitra : Training program for skilled workforce in the solar sector
- This pair is correctly matched. Suryamitra is a training program to develop a skilled workforce in the solar energy sector.
- This pair is correctly matched. Suryamitra is a training program to develop a skilled workforce in the solar energy sector.
All four pairs provided are correctly matched. These initiatives and schemes are part of India's strategy to enhance the adoption of rooftop solar systems, improve energy security, and promote sustainable development.
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General Test Preparation for CUET UG
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