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‘Local Government’ is a subject mentioned in which list under 7th schedule of Indian constitution?- a)Union list
- b)State list
- c)Concurrent list
- d)No option is correct.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
‘Local Government’ is a subject mentioned in which list under 7th schedule of Indian constitution?
a)
Union list
b)
State list
c)
Concurrent list
d)
No option is correct.
|
Swara Dasgupta answered |
Union List
State List
Concurrent List
The Constitution of India in Schedule 7 provides for 61 items in the State List i.e. the states are entitled to make laws in regards to these topics.
But, If any law made by the states is repugnant or in conflict with any provision made by the Parliament which Parliament is competent to enact, or to any provision of an existing law with respect to one of the matters enumerated in the Concurrent List, then, the law made by Parliament, whether passed before or after the law made by the Legislature of such State, or, as the case may be, the existing law, shall prevail and the law made by the Legislature of the State shall, to the extent of the conflict, be void.
The law made by the state legislature can be enforced by a special provision when the President gives his ascent for the same. (Concurrent List)
Some of the topics under State List are:
Public Order
Police
Public Health & Sanitation
Domestic Pilgrimage
Fisheries
Betting & Gambling
Salaries and perks of Legislative Assembly and Council
Which of the following topologies has the highest reliability?- a)Star topology
- b)Bus topology
- c)Ring topology
- d)Mesh topology
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following topologies has the highest reliability?
a)
Star topology
b)
Bus topology
c)
Ring topology
d)
Mesh topology
|
Mehul Yadav answered |
A mesh network is a network topology in which each node relays data for the network. All mesh nodes cooperate in the distribution of data in the network. The network is typically quite reliable, as there is often more than one path between a source and a destination in the network, so problems in a cable affect only the two nodes attached to it.
In the following question, select the related word pair from the given alternatives.Football : Outdoor : : ? : ?- a)Snooker : Indoor
- b)Chess : Outdoor
- c)Cricket : Bat
- d)Tennis : Ball
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
In the following question, select the related word pair from the given alternatives.
Football : Outdoor : : ? : ?
a)
Snooker : Indoor
b)
Chess : Outdoor
c)
Cricket : Bat
d)
Tennis : Ball
|
Abhay Banerjee answered |
Finding the Related Word Pair:
To find the related word pair, we need to identify the relationship between the given words and then look for a similar relationship in the answer choices.
Football : Outdoor
Football is a sport that is typically played outdoors. Therefore, the relationship between football and outdoor is that football is played outdoors.
Snooker : Indoor
Snooker is a sport that is typically played indoors. Therefore, the relationship between snooker and indoor is that snooker is played indoors.
Chess : Outdoor
Chess is a board game that is typically played indoors. Therefore, the relationship between chess and outdoor is incorrect as chess is not played outdoors.
Cricket : Bat
Cricket is a sport that involves the use of a bat. Therefore, the relationship between cricket and bat is incorrect as cricket is not related to the object used in the sport.
Tennis : Ball
Tennis is a sport that involves the use of a ball. Therefore, the relationship between tennis and ball is incorrect as tennis is not related to the object used in the sport.
Based on the above analysis, the correct related word pair is Snooker : Indoor as both snooker and football are sports that are typically played indoors and outdoors respectively.
To find the related word pair, we need to identify the relationship between the given words and then look for a similar relationship in the answer choices.
Football : Outdoor
Football is a sport that is typically played outdoors. Therefore, the relationship between football and outdoor is that football is played outdoors.
Snooker : Indoor
Snooker is a sport that is typically played indoors. Therefore, the relationship between snooker and indoor is that snooker is played indoors.
Chess : Outdoor
Chess is a board game that is typically played indoors. Therefore, the relationship between chess and outdoor is incorrect as chess is not played outdoors.
Cricket : Bat
Cricket is a sport that involves the use of a bat. Therefore, the relationship between cricket and bat is incorrect as cricket is not related to the object used in the sport.
Tennis : Ball
Tennis is a sport that involves the use of a ball. Therefore, the relationship between tennis and ball is incorrect as tennis is not related to the object used in the sport.
Based on the above analysis, the correct related word pair is Snooker : Indoor as both snooker and football are sports that are typically played indoors and outdoors respectively.
Shyama, a woman, says that father of Rajiv’s father is my father. How Shyama is related to Rajiv?- a)Sister
- b)Mother
- c)Father’s sister (aunt)
- d)Niece
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Shyama, a woman, says that father of Rajiv’s father is my father. How Shyama is related to Rajiv?
a)
Sister
b)
Mother
c)
Father’s sister (aunt)
d)
Niece
|
|
Milan Ghosh answered |
Shyama, a woman, says that father of Rajiv’s father is my father.
Now, father of Rajiv’s father is Rajiv’s grandfather.
That means Shyama’s father is Rajiv’s grandfather.
Thus Syama is Rajiv’s aunt.
In the following question, select the related numbers from the given alternatives.J : 90 ∷ N : ?- a)165
- b)196
- c)157
- d)182
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
In the following question, select the related numbers from the given alternatives.
J : 90 ∷ N : ?
a)
165
b)
196
c)
157
d)
182
|
|
Anshul Chakraborty answered |
J : 90 N : ?
To find the related number for N, we need to determine the pattern or relationship between J and its corresponding number, 90.
The relationship between J and 90 can be found by assigning numerical values to the letters in the alphabet. Assuming A=1, B=2, C=3, and so on, we can assign the values to J and N:
J = 10
N = 14
Now, let's analyze the relationship between the assigned values and their corresponding numbers (90 for J and ? for N).
The relationship can be determined by multiplying the assigned value by 9 and subtracting 9 from the result:
J = 10
10 * 9 = 90
90 - 9 = 81
Therefore, the related number for N can be found by applying the same calculation:
N = 14
14 * 9 = 126
126 - 9 = 117
However, none of the given options (165, 196, 157, and 182) match the calculated value of 117.
Therefore, none of the given alternatives are valid and the correct answer cannot be determined based on the given information.
Hence, the answer cannot be determined.
To find the related number for N, we need to determine the pattern or relationship between J and its corresponding number, 90.
The relationship between J and 90 can be found by assigning numerical values to the letters in the alphabet. Assuming A=1, B=2, C=3, and so on, we can assign the values to J and N:
J = 10
N = 14
Now, let's analyze the relationship between the assigned values and their corresponding numbers (90 for J and ? for N).
The relationship can be determined by multiplying the assigned value by 9 and subtracting 9 from the result:
J = 10
10 * 9 = 90
90 - 9 = 81
Therefore, the related number for N can be found by applying the same calculation:
N = 14
14 * 9 = 126
126 - 9 = 117
However, none of the given options (165, 196, 157, and 182) match the calculated value of 117.
Therefore, none of the given alternatives are valid and the correct answer cannot be determined based on the given information.
Hence, the answer cannot be determined.
Which of the following statement is not correct?- a)Isotopes of an element have same atomic number but different mass numbers
- b)The electronic configuration of isotopes of an element is different
- c)The atoms which have the same mass number but different atomic numbers are called isobars
- d)Two nuclei A and B are isotonic with mass numbers 15 and 16 respectively. If A contains 7 protons, then the number of protons in B would be 8
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following statement is not correct?
a)
Isotopes of an element have same atomic number but different mass numbers
b)
The electronic configuration of isotopes of an element is different
c)
The atoms which have the same mass number but different atomic numbers are called isobars
d)
Two nuclei A and B are isotonic with mass numbers 15 and 16 respectively. If A contains 7 protons, then the number of protons in B would be 8
|
Aniket Saini answered |
Isotope, one of two or more species of atoms of a chemical element with the same atomic number and position in the periodic table and nearly identical chemical behaviour but with different atomic masses and physical properties. The electronic configuration of isotopes remains same because the atoms have same atomic number. Isobars are those atoms which have same mass number but different atomic number.Two nuclei will be isotone, if they have same neutron number. The mass number of the atom is equal to the sum of the number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus. A contains 7 protons, hence it will have 8 neutrons. And since A and B are isotonic, hence neutrons will be same for B too which is 8.
In which of the following states, the President rule has never been imposed?- a)Haryana
- b)Chhattisgarh
- c)Gujarat
- d)Himachal Pradesh
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
In which of the following states, the President rule has never been imposed?
a)
Haryana
b)
Chhattisgarh
c)
Gujarat
d)
Himachal Pradesh
|
Aditya Majumdar answered |
Explanation:
Chhattisgarh
President's Rule, also known as Central Rule, is the imposition of Article 356 of the Indian Constitution by the President of India on a state, suspending the state government and imposing direct rule of the Centre. However, Chhattisgarh has never faced President's Rule since its formation on November 1, 2000.
Other States:
- Haryana: President's Rule was imposed in Haryana in 1967, 1991, 1996, and 2005.
- Gujarat: President's Rule was imposed in Gujarat in 1975, 1980, and 1996.
- Himachal Pradesh: President's Rule was imposed in Himachal Pradesh in 1977, 1992, and 1994.
Therefore, out of the given options, Chhattisgarh is the state where President's Rule has never been imposed.
Chhattisgarh
President's Rule, also known as Central Rule, is the imposition of Article 356 of the Indian Constitution by the President of India on a state, suspending the state government and imposing direct rule of the Centre. However, Chhattisgarh has never faced President's Rule since its formation on November 1, 2000.
Other States:
- Haryana: President's Rule was imposed in Haryana in 1967, 1991, 1996, and 2005.
- Gujarat: President's Rule was imposed in Gujarat in 1975, 1980, and 1996.
- Himachal Pradesh: President's Rule was imposed in Himachal Pradesh in 1977, 1992, and 1994.
Therefore, out of the given options, Chhattisgarh is the state where President's Rule has never been imposed.
Which country forms the longest international border with India in the far east?- a)China
- b)Bangladesh
- c)Thailand
- d)Vietnam
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Which country forms the longest international border with India in the far east?
a)
China
b)
Bangladesh
c)
Thailand
d)
Vietnam
|
Saikat Choudhary answered |
Understanding India's Borders in the Far East
India shares international borders with several countries, but in the far east, the most significant is with Bangladesh. Here’s a detailed look at why Bangladesh forms the longest border with India in this region.
Length of the Border
- The India-Bangladesh border stretches approximately 4,096 kilometers, making it the longest border India shares with any country.
- This extensive border includes various terrains such as rivers, hills, and plains, which contribute to its length.
Geographical Significance
- The border traverses the northeastern states of India, including West Bengal, Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.
- Given its location, the border facilitates diverse cultural, economic, and social interactions between the two nations.
Comparison with Other Countries
- While China shares a long border with India, primarily in the northern region, its length is less than that of Bangladesh.
- Thailand and Vietnam do not share a direct border with India, making them irrelevant in this context.
Conclusion
- The extensive border with Bangladesh in the far east is pivotal for trade and movement.
- Understanding this aspect of geography is crucial for comprehending regional dynamics in South Asia.
In summary, the correct answer to the question is indeed option 'B' - Bangladesh, owing to its extensive border length and significant geographical implications.
India shares international borders with several countries, but in the far east, the most significant is with Bangladesh. Here’s a detailed look at why Bangladesh forms the longest border with India in this region.
Length of the Border
- The India-Bangladesh border stretches approximately 4,096 kilometers, making it the longest border India shares with any country.
- This extensive border includes various terrains such as rivers, hills, and plains, which contribute to its length.
Geographical Significance
- The border traverses the northeastern states of India, including West Bengal, Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.
- Given its location, the border facilitates diverse cultural, economic, and social interactions between the two nations.
Comparison with Other Countries
- While China shares a long border with India, primarily in the northern region, its length is less than that of Bangladesh.
- Thailand and Vietnam do not share a direct border with India, making them irrelevant in this context.
Conclusion
- The extensive border with Bangladesh in the far east is pivotal for trade and movement.
- Understanding this aspect of geography is crucial for comprehending regional dynamics in South Asia.
In summary, the correct answer to the question is indeed option 'B' - Bangladesh, owing to its extensive border length and significant geographical implications.
An object is placed at a distance of 15 cm from a concave mirror of focal length 10 cm. Find the distance of the image formed.- a)-30 cm
- b)-20 cm
- c)30 cm
- d)20 cm
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
An object is placed at a distance of 15 cm from a concave mirror of focal length 10 cm. Find the distance of the image formed.
a)
-30 cm
b)
-20 cm
c)
30 cm
d)
20 cm
|
|
Ashish Chakraborty answered |
Object distance, u = -15 cm, focal length f = -10 cm.
The object distance will be negative for concave mirror because the object is always kept in front of the mirror. The focal length will also take negative values because it is on the same side where the object is kept.
Using the mirror equation,
If ‘ + ’ means ‘multiplication, ‘ - ’ means ‘division’, ‘×’ means ‘subtraction’ and ‘÷’ means ‘addition’, then 9 + 8 ÷ 8 – 4 × 9 is- a)65
- b)11
- c)26
- d)56
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
If ‘ + ’ means ‘multiplication, ‘ - ’ means ‘division’, ‘×’ means ‘subtraction’ and ‘÷’ means ‘addition’, then 9 + 8 ÷ 8 – 4 × 9 is
a)
65
b)
11
c)
26
d)
56
|
Bhaskar Joshi answered |
You could have any superpower, what would it be and why?
Where is the headquarter of the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development located?- a)New York
- b)Paris
- c)Geneva
- d)Dubai
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Where is the headquarter of the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development located?
a)
New York
b)
Paris
c)
Geneva
d)
Dubai
|
Sreemoyee Joshi answered |
Location of Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development Headquarters
The headquarters of the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD) is located in Paris, France. The OECD is an international organization that promotes economic development and cooperation among its member countries.
About the OECD
The OECD was founded in 1961 and currently has 38 member countries, including the United States, Japan, Australia, Canada, and many European countries. Its mission is to promote policies that will improve the economic and social well-being of people around the world. The organization works to identify best practices, develop policies, and provide advice and support to member countries.
Functions of the OECD
The OECD has several functions, including:
- Collecting and analyzing data on economic and social issues
- Conducting research and analysis to identify best practices
- Developing policies and guidelines to promote economic and social well-being
- Providing advice and support to member countries
- Facilitating cooperation and coordination among member countries
Conclusion
The OECD is an important international organization that promotes economic development and cooperation among its member countries. Its headquarters is located in Paris, France, where it conducts research, develops policies, and provides advice and support to member countries.
The headquarters of the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD) is located in Paris, France. The OECD is an international organization that promotes economic development and cooperation among its member countries.
About the OECD
The OECD was founded in 1961 and currently has 38 member countries, including the United States, Japan, Australia, Canada, and many European countries. Its mission is to promote policies that will improve the economic and social well-being of people around the world. The organization works to identify best practices, develop policies, and provide advice and support to member countries.
Functions of the OECD
The OECD has several functions, including:
- Collecting and analyzing data on economic and social issues
- Conducting research and analysis to identify best practices
- Developing policies and guidelines to promote economic and social well-being
- Providing advice and support to member countries
- Facilitating cooperation and coordination among member countries
Conclusion
The OECD is an important international organization that promotes economic development and cooperation among its member countries. Its headquarters is located in Paris, France, where it conducts research, develops policies, and provides advice and support to member countries.
Find out the odd numbers from the given alternatives.- a)82
- b)75
- c)64
- d)30
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Find out the odd numbers from the given alternatives.
a)
82
b)
75
c)
64
d)
30
|
|
Ananya Sharma answered |
Here 64 is perfect square but other three are not.
Hence, “64” is odd one among given alternatives.
In which of the following countries is the Kalahari desert located?- a)India
- b)Pakistan
- c)Botswana
- d)Kenya
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
In which of the following countries is the Kalahari desert located?
a)
India
b)
Pakistan
c)
Botswana
d)
Kenya
|
Meera Bose answered |
The Kalahari Desert is a large semi-arid sandy savanna in Southern Africa covering much of Botswana, parts of Namibia and regions of South Africa.
The code for a Web page is written using ________.- a)A fifth generation language
- b)Win Zip
- c)Perl
- d)Hypertext Markup Language (HTML)
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
The code for a Web page is written using ________.
a)
A fifth generation language
b)
Win Zip
c)
Perl
d)
Hypertext Markup Language (HTML)
|
Stuti Bajaj answered |
Hypertext Markup Language (HTML) is the standard markup language for creating web pages and web applications. With Cascading Style Sheets (CSS) and JavaScript it forms a triad of cornerstone technologies for the World Wide Web.
Select the related word from the given alternatives:Crime : Court :: Disease : ?- a)Doctor
- b)Medicine
- c)Hospital
- d)Treatment
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Select the related word from the given alternatives:
Crime : Court :: Disease : ?
a)
Doctor
b)
Medicine
c)
Hospital
d)
Treatment
|
|
Ameya Roy answered |
As the Crimes are solved in Court, in similar way Diseases are solved in Hospitals
In question, select the related word from the given alternatives.Elated : Despondent :: Enlightened : ____- a)Tolerant
- b)Ignorant
- c)Miserable
- d)Aware
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
In question, select the related word from the given alternatives.
Elated : Despondent :: Enlightened : ____
a)
Tolerant
b)
Ignorant
c)
Miserable
d)
Aware
|
|
Sravya Tiwari answered |
Elated means happy which is the opposite of despondent that means discourage. Similarly, enlightened is the opposite of ignorant.
In the following question, select the related word pair from the given alternatives.Rabbit : Animal : : ? : ? - a)Sun : Moon
- b)Pentagon : Figure
- c)Lion : Bird
- d)Animal : Cow
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
In the following question, select the related word pair from the given alternatives.
Rabbit : Animal : : ? : ?
a)
Sun : Moon
b)
Pentagon : Figure
c)
Lion : Bird
d)
Animal : Cow
|
|
Swara Gupta answered |
Just as Rabbit is an animals, Pentagon is a Figure.
Hence, answer is Pentagon: Figure.
Young Bengal Movement was founded by- a)Raja Rammohun Roy
- b)Clive Lyster
- c)Henry Vivian Derozio
- d)None of the above
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Young Bengal Movement was founded by
a)
Raja Rammohun Roy
b)
Clive Lyster
c)
Henry Vivian Derozio
d)
None of the above
|
|
Swati Gupta answered |
The Young Bengal movement was a group of radical Bengali free thinkers emerging from Hindu College, Calcutta. They were also known as Derozians, after their firebrand teacher at Hindu College, Henry Louis Vivian Derozio.
Amir Khusrow was the disciple of whom?- a)Mirza Ghiyas Beg
- b)Nizamuddin Auliya
- c)Asadullah Beg
- d)Sheikh Salim Chisti
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Amir Khusrow was the disciple of whom?
a)
Mirza Ghiyas Beg
b)
Nizamuddin Auliya
c)
Asadullah Beg
d)
Sheikh Salim Chisti
|
Disha Nambiar answered |
Amir Khusrow and his Disciple Nizamuddin Auliya
Amir Khusrow, a renowned poet, musician, and scholar, was the disciple of Nizamuddin Auliya, a prominent Sufi saint of the Chishti order in Delhi. Their association had a profound impact on Khusrow's life and work.
Introduction to Amir Khusrow
Amir Khusrow, also known as Ab'ul Hasan Yamin ud-Din Khusrow, was born in 1253 CE in Patiyali, Uttar Pradesh, India. He was of Turkish and Persian descent and was raised in a culturally diverse environment. Khusrow is considered one of the greatest poets and musicians in the history of South Asia. He composed poetry in Persian, Hindi, and Urdu and played an instrumental role in the development of these languages.
The Life and Teachings of Nizamuddin Auliya
Nizamuddin Auliya, born in 1238 CE in Badayun, Uttar Pradesh, was a revered Sufi saint during the Delhi Sultanate. He belonged to the Chishti order, which emphasized simplicity, love, and devotion in the pursuit of spiritual enlightenment. Nizamuddin Auliya's teachings were focused on the importance of inner purity, selflessness, and the love of God.
Amir Khusrow's Association with Nizamuddin Auliya
Amir Khusrow became a devoted disciple of Nizamuddin Auliya at a young age. He was deeply influenced by the saint's teachings and spiritual practices. Khusrow spent several years in the company of his mentor, absorbing his wisdom and imbibing the principles of Sufism.
The Impact on Amir Khusrow's Work
The association with Nizamuddin Auliya had a profound impact on Amir Khusrow's work as a poet and musician. Khusrow's poetry reflects the themes of divine love, spiritual longing, and the pursuit of inner truth, which were central to Sufi philosophy. He composed numerous ghazals, qawwalis, and other forms of poetry that celebrated the mystical aspects of Islam.
Khusrow's Contribution to Sufi Music
Amir Khusrow is also credited with the creation of the musical genre known as Qawwali. He combined Persian and Indian musical traditions to develop this form of devotional music. Qawwali, characterized by its soulful melodies and rhythmic patterns, became an integral part of Sufi gatherings and continues to be popular to this day.
Conclusion
Amir Khusrow's association with Nizamuddin Auliya played a pivotal role in shaping his artistic and spiritual journey. The teachings and guidance of his mentor deeply influenced his poetry and music, making him one of the most celebrated figures in the history of Indo-Islamic culture. The bond between Amir Khusrow and Nizamuddin Auliya exemplifies the profound impact a spiritual master can have on the life and work of a devoted disciple.
Amir Khusrow, a renowned poet, musician, and scholar, was the disciple of Nizamuddin Auliya, a prominent Sufi saint of the Chishti order in Delhi. Their association had a profound impact on Khusrow's life and work.
Introduction to Amir Khusrow
Amir Khusrow, also known as Ab'ul Hasan Yamin ud-Din Khusrow, was born in 1253 CE in Patiyali, Uttar Pradesh, India. He was of Turkish and Persian descent and was raised in a culturally diverse environment. Khusrow is considered one of the greatest poets and musicians in the history of South Asia. He composed poetry in Persian, Hindi, and Urdu and played an instrumental role in the development of these languages.
The Life and Teachings of Nizamuddin Auliya
Nizamuddin Auliya, born in 1238 CE in Badayun, Uttar Pradesh, was a revered Sufi saint during the Delhi Sultanate. He belonged to the Chishti order, which emphasized simplicity, love, and devotion in the pursuit of spiritual enlightenment. Nizamuddin Auliya's teachings were focused on the importance of inner purity, selflessness, and the love of God.
Amir Khusrow's Association with Nizamuddin Auliya
Amir Khusrow became a devoted disciple of Nizamuddin Auliya at a young age. He was deeply influenced by the saint's teachings and spiritual practices. Khusrow spent several years in the company of his mentor, absorbing his wisdom and imbibing the principles of Sufism.
The Impact on Amir Khusrow's Work
The association with Nizamuddin Auliya had a profound impact on Amir Khusrow's work as a poet and musician. Khusrow's poetry reflects the themes of divine love, spiritual longing, and the pursuit of inner truth, which were central to Sufi philosophy. He composed numerous ghazals, qawwalis, and other forms of poetry that celebrated the mystical aspects of Islam.
Khusrow's Contribution to Sufi Music
Amir Khusrow is also credited with the creation of the musical genre known as Qawwali. He combined Persian and Indian musical traditions to develop this form of devotional music. Qawwali, characterized by its soulful melodies and rhythmic patterns, became an integral part of Sufi gatherings and continues to be popular to this day.
Conclusion
Amir Khusrow's association with Nizamuddin Auliya played a pivotal role in shaping his artistic and spiritual journey. The teachings and guidance of his mentor deeply influenced his poetry and music, making him one of the most celebrated figures in the history of Indo-Islamic culture. The bond between Amir Khusrow and Nizamuddin Auliya exemplifies the profound impact a spiritual master can have on the life and work of a devoted disciple.
Select the related letters from the given alternatives.ZWU : TQO : : LIG : ?- a)EFG
- b)FCA
- c)DEF
- d)EFC
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Select the related letters from the given alternatives.
ZWU : TQO : : LIG : ?
a)
EFG
b)
FCA
c)
DEF
d)
EFC
|
|
Swati Gupta answered |
In ZWU : TQO
Z – 3 = W; W – 2 = U
U – 1 = T
T – 3 = Q; Q – 2 = O
Similarly, in LIG : ?
L – 3 = I; I – 2 = G
G – 1 = F
F – 3 = C; C – 2 = A
Therefore, “FCA” is correct answer.
A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.POT, OMS, NKR, MIQ, ?- a)LGP
- b)KGO
- c)LHP
- d)KHO
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.
POT, OMS, NKR, MIQ, ?
a)
LGP
b)
KGO
c)
LHP
d)
KHO
|
Sameer Verma answered |
Series Analysis:
The given series is: POT, OMS, NKR, MIQ, ?
Pattern:
To find the missing term in the series, let's analyze the pattern followed by the given terms:
1. The first letter of each term is decreasing by one alphabet.
2. The second letter of each term is increasing by one alphabet.
3. The third letter of each term is unchanged.
Applying the Pattern:
Using the above pattern, we can determine the missing term in the series:
1. POT -> P is one alphabet before O, O is one alphabet after N, T remains the same.
2. OMS -> O is one alphabet before N, M is one alphabet after L, S remains the same.
3. NKR -> N is one alphabet before M, K is one alphabet after J, R remains the same.
4. MIQ -> M is one alphabet before L, I is one alphabet after H, Q remains the same.
Following the pattern, the missing term should be one alphabet before L, one alphabet after K, and the third letter should remain the same. The only option that satisfies this pattern is option 'A': LGP.
Conclusion:
The missing term in the series is LGP. Therefore, the correct answer is option 'A'.
The given series is: POT, OMS, NKR, MIQ, ?
Pattern:
To find the missing term in the series, let's analyze the pattern followed by the given terms:
1. The first letter of each term is decreasing by one alphabet.
2. The second letter of each term is increasing by one alphabet.
3. The third letter of each term is unchanged.
Applying the Pattern:
Using the above pattern, we can determine the missing term in the series:
1. POT -> P is one alphabet before O, O is one alphabet after N, T remains the same.
2. OMS -> O is one alphabet before N, M is one alphabet after L, S remains the same.
3. NKR -> N is one alphabet before M, K is one alphabet after J, R remains the same.
4. MIQ -> M is one alphabet before L, I is one alphabet after H, Q remains the same.
Following the pattern, the missing term should be one alphabet before L, one alphabet after K, and the third letter should remain the same. The only option that satisfies this pattern is option 'A': LGP.
Conclusion:
The missing term in the series is LGP. Therefore, the correct answer is option 'A'.
Which among the following is TRUE regarding the composition of the Union Public Service Commission?- a)There should be ten members in the commission including the Chairman of the Commission
- b)At least half the members should have held a government office for at least 10 years either at the central level or at the state level
- c)The members of the Commission should at least be a graduate from a recognized university
- d)Both 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Which among the following is TRUE regarding the composition of the Union Public Service Commission?
a)
There should be ten members in the commission including the Chairman of the Commission
b)
At least half the members should have held a government office for at least 10 years either at the central level or at the state level
c)
The members of the Commission should at least be a graduate from a recognized university
d)
Both 2 and 3
|
Stuti Mishra answered |
- There is no specific composition of UPSC specified in the Constitution and it has been left at the discretion of the President.
- At least half of the members should hold an office for ten years either at the central government or at the state government.
- No other educational qualification has been prescribed for the members of the Commission.
Which ruler of Bengal gave a portion of Orissa to the Marathas?- a)Shaista Khan
- b)Murshid Kuli Khan
- c)Alivardi Khan
- d)Sirajuddaula
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Which ruler of Bengal gave a portion of Orissa to the Marathas?
a)
Shaista Khan
b)
Murshid Kuli Khan
c)
Alivardi Khan
d)
Sirajuddaula
|
Sagarika Patel answered |
In 1751, the Marathas signed a peace treaty with the Nawab of Bengal, according to which Mir Habib (a former courtier of Alivardi Khan, who had defected to the Marathas) was made provincial governor of Orissa under nominal control of the Nawab of Bengal.
Revealed Preference Theory was propounded by which of the following?- a)Adam Smith
- b)Paul Samuelson
- c)J. S. Mill
- d)T. R. Malthus
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Revealed Preference Theory was propounded by which of the following?
a)
Adam Smith
b)
Paul Samuelson
c)
J. S. Mill
d)
T. R. Malthus
|
|
Disha Nambiar answered |
Revealed Preference Theory
The Revealed Preference Theory was propounded by Paul Samuelson. This theory is a concept in economics that aims to understand and analyze consumer behavior and preferences based on their observed choices in the market.
Explanation
The Revealed Preference Theory is based on the fundamental assumption that consumers' preferences can be inferred from their observed choices in the market. It suggests that individuals reveal their preferences through their purchasing decisions, and by analyzing these choices, economists can gain insights into consumer behavior.
Key Points
Some of the key points regarding the Revealed Preference Theory are as follows:
1. Paul Samuelson: The theory was propounded by Paul Samuelson, an American economist and Nobel laureate, in his book "Foundations of Economic Analysis" in 1947.
2. Understanding Consumer Preferences: The theory provides a methodology to understand and analyze consumer preferences by examining their actual choices. It focuses on observed behavior rather than relying on subjective surveys or hypothetical scenarios.
3. Choice Set: According to the theory, consumers face a choice set comprising various goods and services. They make decisions based on their preferences and budget constraints.
4. Consistency and Rationality: The theory assumes that consumers are consistent and rational decision-makers. It suggests that individuals have a well-defined set of preferences and choose the option that maximizes their utility.
5. Market Behavior: By studying the choices made by consumers in the market, economists can analyze price effects, income effects, and substitution effects. These insights can be used to make predictions about consumer behavior and market outcomes.
6. Indifference Curves: The Revealed Preference Theory is closely related to the concept of indifference curves. Indifference curves represent different combinations of goods that provide the same level of satisfaction or utility to the consumer.
7. Limitations: While the theory provides a useful framework for understanding consumer behavior, it does have some limitations. It assumes that preferences are stable and consistent over time, and it does not account for the influence of social and psychological factors on consumer choices.
In conclusion, the Revealed Preference Theory, propounded by Paul Samuelson, is a valuable tool for analyzing consumer behavior and preferences based on observed choices in the market. By studying consumer decisions, economists can gain insights into market behavior and make predictions about consumer choices and market outcomes.
The Revealed Preference Theory was propounded by Paul Samuelson. This theory is a concept in economics that aims to understand and analyze consumer behavior and preferences based on their observed choices in the market.
Explanation
The Revealed Preference Theory is based on the fundamental assumption that consumers' preferences can be inferred from their observed choices in the market. It suggests that individuals reveal their preferences through their purchasing decisions, and by analyzing these choices, economists can gain insights into consumer behavior.
Key Points
Some of the key points regarding the Revealed Preference Theory are as follows:
1. Paul Samuelson: The theory was propounded by Paul Samuelson, an American economist and Nobel laureate, in his book "Foundations of Economic Analysis" in 1947.
2. Understanding Consumer Preferences: The theory provides a methodology to understand and analyze consumer preferences by examining their actual choices. It focuses on observed behavior rather than relying on subjective surveys or hypothetical scenarios.
3. Choice Set: According to the theory, consumers face a choice set comprising various goods and services. They make decisions based on their preferences and budget constraints.
4. Consistency and Rationality: The theory assumes that consumers are consistent and rational decision-makers. It suggests that individuals have a well-defined set of preferences and choose the option that maximizes their utility.
5. Market Behavior: By studying the choices made by consumers in the market, economists can analyze price effects, income effects, and substitution effects. These insights can be used to make predictions about consumer behavior and market outcomes.
6. Indifference Curves: The Revealed Preference Theory is closely related to the concept of indifference curves. Indifference curves represent different combinations of goods that provide the same level of satisfaction or utility to the consumer.
7. Limitations: While the theory provides a useful framework for understanding consumer behavior, it does have some limitations. It assumes that preferences are stable and consistent over time, and it does not account for the influence of social and psychological factors on consumer choices.
In conclusion, the Revealed Preference Theory, propounded by Paul Samuelson, is a valuable tool for analyzing consumer behavior and preferences based on observed choices in the market. By studying consumer decisions, economists can gain insights into market behavior and make predictions about consumer choices and market outcomes.
Which of the following is an example of thermosetting plastic?- a)Bakelite
- b)PVC
- c)Polyethylene
- d)No option is correct.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following is an example of thermosetting plastic?
a)
Bakelite
b)
PVC
c)
Polyethylene
d)
No option is correct.
|
|
Vaibhav Khanna answered |
- Thermosetting plastic is a type of plastic which once heated gets solidified and cannot be remoulded or melted on subsequent applications of heat.
- This occurs due to the formation of cross links in the polymer which prevent it from being remoulded.
- Bakelite is an example of thermosetting plastics.
- PVC and polyethylene are examples of thermoplastics. These are the types of polymers that melt on heating and solidify on cooling.
In the question below is given a statement followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then consider the two conclusions together and decide which of them logically follows beyond a reasonable doubt from the information given in the statement.Statement: If mileage and looks are your criteria for buying a car, Renault’s Duster is your best bet.Conclusions:I. Renault Duster gives good mileage.II. It is the best looking car of all times.- a)Only conclusion I follows.
- b)Only conclusion II follows.
- c)Neither I nor II follows.
- d)Both I and II follow.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
In the question below is given a statement followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then consider the two conclusions together and decide which of them logically follows beyond a reasonable doubt from the information given in the statement.
Statement: If mileage and looks are your criteria for buying a car, Renault’s Duster is your best bet.
Conclusions:
I. Renault Duster gives good mileage.
II. It is the best looking car of all times.
a)
Only conclusion I follows.
b)
Only conclusion II follows.
c)
Neither I nor II follows.
d)
Both I and II follow.
|
|
Bhargavi Sengupta answered |
The statement suggests that Renault Duster is being suggested to someone for whom mileage and looks are important attributes. Thus, it implies that the car gives good mileage. Hence, conclusion I follows.
The second conclusion cannot be deduced because the statement does not convey any information about comparison of the car with any other contemporary car in terms of looks. Thus this conclusion does not follow.
In the following question, select the missing number from the given series.18, 14, 10, 6, ?- a)2
- b)3
- c)4
- d)5
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
In the following question, select the missing number from the given series.
18, 14, 10, 6, ?
a)
2
b)
3
c)
4
d)
5
|
|
Gopal Choudhury answered |
Understanding the Series
The given series is: 18, 14, 10, 6, ?
To find the missing number, we need to identify the pattern in the series.
Identifying the Pattern
- Start with the first number: 18
- The second number is: 14
- Difference: 18 - 14 = 4
- The third number is: 10
- Difference: 14 - 10 = 4
- The fourth number is: 6
- Difference: 10 - 6 = 4
Calculating the Missing Number
- We see that each number in the series decreases by 4.
- Continuing this pattern, we subtract 4 from the last number (6):
6 - 4 = 2
Conclusion
Therefore, the missing number in the series is 2. The correct answer is option 'A'.
This consistent decrease of 4 through the series confirms that the answer is not only logically derived but also fits the established pattern.
The given series is: 18, 14, 10, 6, ?
To find the missing number, we need to identify the pattern in the series.
Identifying the Pattern
- Start with the first number: 18
- The second number is: 14
- Difference: 18 - 14 = 4
- The third number is: 10
- Difference: 14 - 10 = 4
- The fourth number is: 6
- Difference: 10 - 6 = 4
Calculating the Missing Number
- We see that each number in the series decreases by 4.
- Continuing this pattern, we subtract 4 from the last number (6):
6 - 4 = 2
Conclusion
Therefore, the missing number in the series is 2. The correct answer is option 'A'.
This consistent decrease of 4 through the series confirms that the answer is not only logically derived but also fits the established pattern.
Choose the odd number from the given alternatives. - a)243 - 132
- b)183 - 54
- c)108 - 97
- d)99 - 63
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Choose the odd number from the given alternatives.
a)
243 - 132
b)
183 - 54
c)
108 - 97
d)
99 - 63
|
|
Tanishq Menon answered |
1) 243 - 132 = 111 (divisible by 3)
2) 183 - 54 = 129 (divisible by 3)
3) 108 - 97 = 11 (not divisible by 3)
4) 99 - 63 = 36 (divisible by 3)
Hence, 108 - 97 is odd one out.
Which committee was set up to review the concept of the poverty line?- a)Suresh Tendulkar Committee
- b)Lakdawala Committee
- c)Wanchoo Committee
- d)Dutt Committee
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Which committee was set up to review the concept of the poverty line?
a)
Suresh Tendulkar Committee
b)
Lakdawala Committee
c)
Wanchoo Committee
d)
Dutt Committee
|
Shreya Choudhury answered |
- Suresh Tendulkar committee was constituted to review the concept of the poverty line in 2005. The committee recommended to shift away from the calories model.
- Lakdawala committee was constituted to consider methodological and computational aspects of estimation of proportion and number of poor in India.
- Wanchoo committee was constituted to look into industrial development for the backward areas and to recommend fiscal and financial incentives for industries in these areas.
- Dutt committee was constituted to inquire into the working of the licensing system in India.
Quinine is obtained from a plant. What Part of the plant yields the drug?- a)Leaves
- b)Fruits
- c)Root
- d)Stem bark
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Quinine is obtained from a plant. What Part of the plant yields the drug?
a)
Leaves
b)
Fruits
c)
Root
d)
Stem bark
|
Sai Reddy answered |
Quinine is an alkaloid found in the stem bark of the cinchona tree. It has been used to treat malaria since the early 1600s. It also is used as a medication for babesiosis.
Which of the following type of medicine is used for treating indigestion?- a)Antibiotic
- b)Analgesic
- c)Antacid
- d)Antiseptic
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following type of medicine is used for treating indigestion?
a)
Antibiotic
b)
Analgesic
c)
Antacid
d)
Antiseptic
|
|
Anjali Shah answered |
Antacid for Treating Indigestion
Indigestion is a common digestive issue that can cause discomfort and pain in the upper abdomen. One type of medicine that is commonly used to treat indigestion is an antacid.
What is an Antacid?
- Antacids are medications that help neutralize stomach acid to relieve symptoms such as heartburn, acidity, and indigestion.
- They work by raising the pH level in the stomach, which helps to reduce the irritation caused by excess acid.
How Antacids Help with Indigestion?
- Indigestion is often caused by an imbalance of stomach acid, leading to symptoms such as bloating, belching, and discomfort.
- Antacids can help to alleviate these symptoms by neutralizing the excess acid in the stomach, providing relief from indigestion.
- They can also help to soothe the lining of the stomach and esophagus, reducing inflammation and discomfort.
Types of Antacids
- There are various types of antacids available over the counter, including calcium carbonate, magnesium hydroxide, and aluminum hydroxide.
- Some antacids may also contain additional ingredients such as simethicone to help relieve gas and bloating.
Usage and Precautions
- Antacids are generally safe for short-term use to relieve occasional indigestion symptoms.
- However, prolonged or excessive use of antacids may lead to side effects such as constipation, diarrhea, and electrolyte imbalances.
- It is important to follow the recommended dosage and consult a healthcare provider if symptoms persist or worsen.
In conclusion, antacids are a commonly used type of medicine for treating indigestion by neutralizing stomach acid and providing relief from symptoms such as heartburn and discomfort.
Indigestion is a common digestive issue that can cause discomfort and pain in the upper abdomen. One type of medicine that is commonly used to treat indigestion is an antacid.
What is an Antacid?
- Antacids are medications that help neutralize stomach acid to relieve symptoms such as heartburn, acidity, and indigestion.
- They work by raising the pH level in the stomach, which helps to reduce the irritation caused by excess acid.
How Antacids Help with Indigestion?
- Indigestion is often caused by an imbalance of stomach acid, leading to symptoms such as bloating, belching, and discomfort.
- Antacids can help to alleviate these symptoms by neutralizing the excess acid in the stomach, providing relief from indigestion.
- They can also help to soothe the lining of the stomach and esophagus, reducing inflammation and discomfort.
Types of Antacids
- There are various types of antacids available over the counter, including calcium carbonate, magnesium hydroxide, and aluminum hydroxide.
- Some antacids may also contain additional ingredients such as simethicone to help relieve gas and bloating.
Usage and Precautions
- Antacids are generally safe for short-term use to relieve occasional indigestion symptoms.
- However, prolonged or excessive use of antacids may lead to side effects such as constipation, diarrhea, and electrolyte imbalances.
- It is important to follow the recommended dosage and consult a healthcare provider if symptoms persist or worsen.
In conclusion, antacids are a commonly used type of medicine for treating indigestion by neutralizing stomach acid and providing relief from symptoms such as heartburn and discomfort.
Directions: In each of the following questions, select the related number from the given alternatives.5 : 24 : : 23 : ?- a)98
- b)114
- c)115
- d)97
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Directions: In each of the following questions, select the related number from the given alternatives.
5 : 24 : : 23 : ?
a)
98
b)
114
c)
115
d)
97
|
|
Hiral Sharma answered |
Given:
5 : 24
To Find:
23 : ?
Solution:
The given numbers 5 and 24 are related in some way. We need to find the number that is related to 23 in a similar manner.
Step 1: Analyzing the relationship between 5 and 24
To find the relationship between 5 and 24, we can try different operations or patterns that relate the two numbers. Let's try a few possibilities:
- Addition: 5 + 19 = 24 (No pattern)
- Subtraction: 24 - 19 = 5 (No pattern)
- Multiplication: 5 x 4 + 4 = 24 (Possible pattern)
Step 2: Applying the pattern to find the missing number
Based on the multiplication pattern, we can try to find the missing number by using the same pattern. Let's apply the pattern to 23:
23 x 4 + 4 = 92 + 4 = 96 (Not the correct answer)
The pattern seems to be close but not exactly correct. Let's try adding a different constant value:
23 x 4 + 5 = 92 + 5 = 97 (Not the correct answer)
Step 3: Finding the correct pattern
Based on the previous attempts, it seems that the pattern involves multiplying the number by 4 and then adding a constant value. However, the constant value is not clear yet.
Let's try adding a different constant value:
23 x 4 + 6 = 92 + 6 = 98 (Not the correct answer)
Step 4: Finding the correct constant value
Based on the previous attempts, it seems that the correct constant value is 9. Let's apply this value to find the missing number:
23 x 4 + 9 = 92 + 9 = 101 (Not the correct answer)
Step 5: Final attempt
We have tried different constant values, but none of them gave the correct answer. Let's try one more attempt with a different constant value:
23 x 4 + 10 = 92 + 10 = 102 (Not the correct answer)
Conclusion:
After trying different patterns and constant values, we can conclude that the relationship between 5 and 24 is not clear or consistent. Therefore, we cannot determine the related number for 23 based on the given information.
5 : 24
To Find:
23 : ?
Solution:
The given numbers 5 and 24 are related in some way. We need to find the number that is related to 23 in a similar manner.
Step 1: Analyzing the relationship between 5 and 24
To find the relationship between 5 and 24, we can try different operations or patterns that relate the two numbers. Let's try a few possibilities:
- Addition: 5 + 19 = 24 (No pattern)
- Subtraction: 24 - 19 = 5 (No pattern)
- Multiplication: 5 x 4 + 4 = 24 (Possible pattern)
Step 2: Applying the pattern to find the missing number
Based on the multiplication pattern, we can try to find the missing number by using the same pattern. Let's apply the pattern to 23:
23 x 4 + 4 = 92 + 4 = 96 (Not the correct answer)
The pattern seems to be close but not exactly correct. Let's try adding a different constant value:
23 x 4 + 5 = 92 + 5 = 97 (Not the correct answer)
Step 3: Finding the correct pattern
Based on the previous attempts, it seems that the pattern involves multiplying the number by 4 and then adding a constant value. However, the constant value is not clear yet.
Let's try adding a different constant value:
23 x 4 + 6 = 92 + 6 = 98 (Not the correct answer)
Step 4: Finding the correct constant value
Based on the previous attempts, it seems that the correct constant value is 9. Let's apply this value to find the missing number:
23 x 4 + 9 = 92 + 9 = 101 (Not the correct answer)
Step 5: Final attempt
We have tried different constant values, but none of them gave the correct answer. Let's try one more attempt with a different constant value:
23 x 4 + 10 = 92 + 10 = 102 (Not the correct answer)
Conclusion:
After trying different patterns and constant values, we can conclude that the relationship between 5 and 24 is not clear or consistent. Therefore, we cannot determine the related number for 23 based on the given information.
Which of the following animal can be seen on Seal of Constituent Assembly of India?- a)Tiger
- b)Lion
- c)Elephant
- d)Dog
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following animal can be seen on Seal of Constituent Assembly of India?
a)
Tiger
b)
Lion
c)
Elephant
d)
Dog
|
|
Sanskriti Basu answered |
Seal of Constituent Assembly of India
The animal that can be seen on the Seal of Constituent Assembly of India is an elephant.
Significance of the Elephant
- The elephant has been a symbol of wisdom, strength, and prosperity in Indian culture for centuries.
- It is also considered a symbol of stability and power in Hindu mythology.
- The choice of the elephant on the Seal of Constituent Assembly of India represents these qualities and the aspirations of the newly independent nation.
Explanation of the Seal
- The Seal of Constituent Assembly of India features the image of an elephant with a rider on its back.
- The rider is holding a flag and a lotus, which are symbols of national pride and unity.
- The elephant is shown with its trunk raised, a gesture that signifies good luck and prosperity in Indian culture.
Historical Significance
- The Seal of Constituent Assembly of India was designed by renowned artist Nandalal Bose.
- It was adopted on 26th January 1950, the day the Constitution of India came into effect.
- The Seal symbolizes the values and principles enshrined in the Indian Constitution, including justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity.
In conclusion, the elephant on the Seal of Constituent Assembly of India represents the rich cultural heritage and the noble aspirations of the Indian people as they embarked on a new journey as an independent nation.
The animal that can be seen on the Seal of Constituent Assembly of India is an elephant.
Significance of the Elephant
- The elephant has been a symbol of wisdom, strength, and prosperity in Indian culture for centuries.
- It is also considered a symbol of stability and power in Hindu mythology.
- The choice of the elephant on the Seal of Constituent Assembly of India represents these qualities and the aspirations of the newly independent nation.
Explanation of the Seal
- The Seal of Constituent Assembly of India features the image of an elephant with a rider on its back.
- The rider is holding a flag and a lotus, which are symbols of national pride and unity.
- The elephant is shown with its trunk raised, a gesture that signifies good luck and prosperity in Indian culture.
Historical Significance
- The Seal of Constituent Assembly of India was designed by renowned artist Nandalal Bose.
- It was adopted on 26th January 1950, the day the Constitution of India came into effect.
- The Seal symbolizes the values and principles enshrined in the Indian Constitution, including justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity.
In conclusion, the elephant on the Seal of Constituent Assembly of India represents the rich cultural heritage and the noble aspirations of the Indian people as they embarked on a new journey as an independent nation.
National Waterway-2 is on which water system?- a)West Coast Canal
- b)River Brahmaputra
- c)Ganga-Bhagirathi-Hoogli river
- d)Sundarbans waterways
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
National Waterway-2 is on which water system?
a)
West Coast Canal
b)
River Brahmaputra
c)
Ganga-Bhagirathi-Hoogli river
d)
Sundarbans waterways
|
|
Sreemoyee Joshi answered |
National Waterway 2 (NW-2):
- is a section of the Brahmaputra River having a length of 891 km
- between the Bangladesh border near Dhubri and Sadiya in Assam
Which among the following is NOT correctly matched?- a)Article 321: Power to extend functions of the Public Service Commissions.
- b)Article 317: Removal and Suspension of a member of the Public Service Commission
- c)Article 320: Expenses of Public Service Commissions
- d)Article 323: Reports of Public Service Commissions
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Which among the following is NOT correctly matched?
a)
Article 321: Power to extend functions of the Public Service Commissions.
b)
Article 317: Removal and Suspension of a member of the Public Service Commission
c)
Article 320: Expenses of Public Service Commissions
d)
Article 323: Reports of Public Service Commissions
|
|
Lekshmi Das answered |
Introduction:
In this question, we are asked to identify the correctly matched article among the given options. We need to determine which article does not accurately describe the power or function of the Public Service Commissions.
Explanation:
Let's analyze each option one by one:
a) Article 321: Power to extend functions of the Public Service Commissions:
This article correctly describes the power of the Public Service Commissions to extend their functions. Public Service Commissions are constitutional bodies that are responsible for conducting recruitment examinations, interviews, and making appointments to various government positions. They have the authority to extend their functions as per the requirements of the government.
b) Article 317: Removal and Suspension of a member of the Public Service Commission:
This article accurately describes the provision for the removal and suspension of a member of the Public Service Commission. It states that a member of the Public Service Commission can be removed or suspended on the grounds of misbehavior or incapacity. The process for removal or suspension is prescribed by the President of India.
c) Article 320: Expenses of Public Service Commissions:
This is the incorrect match. Article 320 does not specifically mention the expenses of Public Service Commissions. It primarily deals with the functions of the Public Service Commissions, including the recruitment and appointment of government officials. The expenses of the Public Service Commissions are usually covered under the general budget of the government.
d) Article 323: Reports of Public Service Commissions:
This article accurately describes the provision for the submission of reports by the Public Service Commissions. It states that the Public Service Commissions are required to submit annual reports to the President of India, who will then lay them before the respective state legislatures or the Parliament.
Conclusion:
Based on the analysis, it can be concluded that option 'c' is the correct answer as it does not correctly match the power or function of the Public Service Commissions.
In this question, we are asked to identify the correctly matched article among the given options. We need to determine which article does not accurately describe the power or function of the Public Service Commissions.
Explanation:
Let's analyze each option one by one:
a) Article 321: Power to extend functions of the Public Service Commissions:
This article correctly describes the power of the Public Service Commissions to extend their functions. Public Service Commissions are constitutional bodies that are responsible for conducting recruitment examinations, interviews, and making appointments to various government positions. They have the authority to extend their functions as per the requirements of the government.
b) Article 317: Removal and Suspension of a member of the Public Service Commission:
This article accurately describes the provision for the removal and suspension of a member of the Public Service Commission. It states that a member of the Public Service Commission can be removed or suspended on the grounds of misbehavior or incapacity. The process for removal or suspension is prescribed by the President of India.
c) Article 320: Expenses of Public Service Commissions:
This is the incorrect match. Article 320 does not specifically mention the expenses of Public Service Commissions. It primarily deals with the functions of the Public Service Commissions, including the recruitment and appointment of government officials. The expenses of the Public Service Commissions are usually covered under the general budget of the government.
d) Article 323: Reports of Public Service Commissions:
This article accurately describes the provision for the submission of reports by the Public Service Commissions. It states that the Public Service Commissions are required to submit annual reports to the President of India, who will then lay them before the respective state legislatures or the Parliament.
Conclusion:
Based on the analysis, it can be concluded that option 'c' is the correct answer as it does not correctly match the power or function of the Public Service Commissions.
Which of the following terms follows the trend of the given list?YXXXXXX, YYXXXXX, YYYXXXX, YYYYXXX, YYYYYXX, _______________. - a)XXXXXXX
- b)YXXXXXX
- c)YYYYYYX
- d)YYXXXXX
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following terms follows the trend of the given list?
YXXXXXX, YYXXXXX, YYYXXXX, YYYYXXX, YYYYYXX, _______________.
a)
XXXXXXX
b)
YXXXXXX
c)
YYYYYYX
d)
YYXXXXX
|
Rhea Reddy answered |
The pattern here is the letter ‘X’ which is to the immediate right of letter ‘Y’ is converted to ‘Y’ in every step and hence increasing the number of letter ‘Y’ in every step i.e.
YXXXXXX, YYXXXXX, YYYXXXX, YYYYXXX, YYYYYXX, YYYYYYX.
Hence, YYYYYYX is the correct alternative.
A series is given, with one number missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.-4, ?, 1, 3.5, 6, 8.5- a)2
- b)1.5
- c)-1.5
- d)-2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
A series is given, with one number missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.
-4, ?, 1, 3.5, 6, 8.5
a)
2
b)
1.5
c)
-1.5
d)
-2
|
|
Vaibhav Khanna answered |
Explanation:
To find the missing number in the given series, we need to observe the pattern and logic behind the numbers.
The given series is: -4, ?, 1, 3.5, 6, 8.5
Pattern:
- The series starts with -4 and the subsequent numbers are increasing with a pattern.
- The difference between the first two numbers (i.e., -4 and the missing number) is unknown.
- The difference between the missing number and the next number (1) is 5.
- The difference between 1 and the next number (3.5) is 2.5.
- The difference between 3.5 and the next number (6) is 2.5.
- The difference between 6 and the next number (8.5) is 2.5.
Logic:
- The pattern in the differences between the numbers is consistent.
- It appears that each number in the series is obtained by adding 2.5 to the previous number.
- Therefore, the missing number can be found by subtracting 2.5 from 1.
Calculation:
1 - 2.5 = -1.5
Conclusion:
The missing number in the given series is -1.5, which corresponds to option 'C'.
To find the missing number in the given series, we need to observe the pattern and logic behind the numbers.
The given series is: -4, ?, 1, 3.5, 6, 8.5
Pattern:
- The series starts with -4 and the subsequent numbers are increasing with a pattern.
- The difference between the first two numbers (i.e., -4 and the missing number) is unknown.
- The difference between the missing number and the next number (1) is 5.
- The difference between 1 and the next number (3.5) is 2.5.
- The difference between 3.5 and the next number (6) is 2.5.
- The difference between 6 and the next number (8.5) is 2.5.
Logic:
- The pattern in the differences between the numbers is consistent.
- It appears that each number in the series is obtained by adding 2.5 to the previous number.
- Therefore, the missing number can be found by subtracting 2.5 from 1.
Calculation:
1 - 2.5 = -1.5
Conclusion:
The missing number in the given series is -1.5, which corresponds to option 'C'.
Pointing to a lady in the photograph, Sakshi said, ‘Her son’s father is the son-in-law of my mother”. How is the lady related to sakshi?- a)Sister
- b)Aunt
- c)Mother
- d)Cousin
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Pointing to a lady in the photograph, Sakshi said, ‘Her son’s father is the son-in-law of my mother”. How is the lady related to sakshi?
a)
Sister
b)
Aunt
c)
Mother
d)
Cousin
|
|
Siddharth Menon answered |
Understanding the Relationship
To determine how the lady in the photograph is related to Sakshi, we need to break down Sakshi's statement:
Sakshi's Statement
"Her son’s father is the son-in-law of my mother."
Breaking Down the Statement
- Her son: Refers to the son of the lady in the photograph.
- Father of her son: This indicates the husband of the lady in the photograph.
- Son-in-law of my mother: This refers to Sakshi's father (since a son-in-law is typically the husband of one's sibling).
Putting it all together:
- The father of the lady's son (her husband) is Sakshi's father.
- Therefore, the lady in question must be Sakshi's mother.
Conclusion
Since the lady is Sakshi's mother, the correct answer is:
Option A: Sister is incorrect; the lady is actually Sakshi's mother.
This analysis confirms that the lady is not just a relative but directly related as Sakshi's mother, making the given option misleading.
Final Correction
For clarity, the relationship should be stated as follows:
- The lady in the photograph is Sakshi's Mother.
Thus, the correct relationship is not sister (option A) but rather mother, which reflects the true familial connection.
To determine how the lady in the photograph is related to Sakshi, we need to break down Sakshi's statement:
Sakshi's Statement
"Her son’s father is the son-in-law of my mother."
Breaking Down the Statement
- Her son: Refers to the son of the lady in the photograph.
- Father of her son: This indicates the husband of the lady in the photograph.
- Son-in-law of my mother: This refers to Sakshi's father (since a son-in-law is typically the husband of one's sibling).
Putting it all together:
- The father of the lady's son (her husband) is Sakshi's father.
- Therefore, the lady in question must be Sakshi's mother.
Conclusion
Since the lady is Sakshi's mother, the correct answer is:
Option A: Sister is incorrect; the lady is actually Sakshi's mother.
This analysis confirms that the lady is not just a relative but directly related as Sakshi's mother, making the given option misleading.
Final Correction
For clarity, the relationship should be stated as follows:
- The lady in the photograph is Sakshi's Mother.
Thus, the correct relationship is not sister (option A) but rather mother, which reflects the true familial connection.
Which of the following is incorrect? C is the capacitance of the capacitor and V is the voltage, Q is the charge of the capacitor - a)Energy stored in the capacitor is: 0.5CV2
- b)Energy stored in the capacitor is: 0.5QV
- c)Charge stored in the capacitor is: CV
- d)The capacitance equivalent when C1, C2, C3,….., Cn capacitors are connected in series: C1 + C2 + C3 + …….. + Cn
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following is incorrect? C is the capacitance of the capacitor and V is the voltage, Q is the charge of the capacitor
a)
Energy stored in the capacitor is: 0.5CV2
b)
Energy stored in the capacitor is: 0.5QV
c)
Charge stored in the capacitor is: CV
d)
The capacitance equivalent when C1, C2, C3,….., Cn capacitors are connected in series: C1 + C2 + C3 + …….. + Cn
|
|
Pranab Chaudhary answered |
Understanding Capacitor Energy and Charge Relationships
When analyzing capacitors, it is essential to understand how they store energy and charge, as well as the proper formulas and configurations used in their calculations.
Correct Energy and Charge Formulas
- Energy stored in a capacitor can be expressed in multiple ways:
- a) Energy stored in the capacitor is: 0.5CV²
- b) Energy stored in the capacitor is: 0.5QV
- Both formulas are valid, as they derive from the relationships between charge (Q), capacitance (C), and voltage (V).
Charge Relationship
- c) Charge stored in the capacitor is: CV is correct, reflecting the fundamental definition of capacitance.
Capacitance in Series vs. Parallel
- The incorrect statement is:
- d) The capacitance equivalent when C1, C2, C3,…, Cn capacitors are connected in series: C1 + C2 + C3 + ... + Cn
- Explanation of Series Configuration:
- In a series connection, the total capacitance (C_eq) is not the sum of individual capacitances. Instead, it is calculated using the formula:
- 1/C_eq = 1/C1 + 1/C2 + 1/C3 + ... + 1/Cn
- This means that the overall capacitance decreases when capacitors are connected in series, contrary to what option D suggests.
Conclusion
Understanding these principles is crucial for correctly analyzing capacitor circuits in mechanical engineering and electronics. Always ensure to apply the right formulas based on the configuration of the capacitors.
When analyzing capacitors, it is essential to understand how they store energy and charge, as well as the proper formulas and configurations used in their calculations.
Correct Energy and Charge Formulas
- Energy stored in a capacitor can be expressed in multiple ways:
- a) Energy stored in the capacitor is: 0.5CV²
- b) Energy stored in the capacitor is: 0.5QV
- Both formulas are valid, as they derive from the relationships between charge (Q), capacitance (C), and voltage (V).
Charge Relationship
- c) Charge stored in the capacitor is: CV is correct, reflecting the fundamental definition of capacitance.
Capacitance in Series vs. Parallel
- The incorrect statement is:
- d) The capacitance equivalent when C1, C2, C3,…, Cn capacitors are connected in series: C1 + C2 + C3 + ... + Cn
- Explanation of Series Configuration:
- In a series connection, the total capacitance (C_eq) is not the sum of individual capacitances. Instead, it is calculated using the formula:
- 1/C_eq = 1/C1 + 1/C2 + 1/C3 + ... + 1/Cn
- This means that the overall capacitance decreases when capacitors are connected in series, contrary to what option D suggests.
Conclusion
Understanding these principles is crucial for correctly analyzing capacitor circuits in mechanical engineering and electronics. Always ensure to apply the right formulas based on the configuration of the capacitors.
In the following question, select the related word from the given alternatives.College : Dean ∷ Museum : ?- a)Curator
- b)Keeper
- c)Guardian
- d)Manager
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
In the following question, select the related word from the given alternatives.
College : Dean ∷ Museum : ?
a)
Curator
b)
Keeper
c)
Guardian
d)
Manager
|
|
Shounak Saini answered |
Dean is the in charge of the college.
Similarly, Curator is the in charge of the museum.
Hence, Curator is the answer.
Which of the following elements has the lowest melting point?- a)Helium
- b)Potassium
- c)Tungsten
- d)Sulphur
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following elements has the lowest melting point?
a)
Helium
b)
Potassium
c)
Tungsten
d)
Sulphur
|
Sagarika Mukherjee answered |
Understanding Melting Points
The melting point of a substance is the temperature at which it transitions from solid to liquid. This property varies widely among different elements and is influenced by atomic structure and bonding.
Elements in Question
- Helium (He): A noble gas with a very low atomic mass and weak interatomic forces.
- Potassium (K): An alkali metal, relatively low melting point compared to many metals but higher than helium.
- Tungsten (W): A transition metal known for its high melting point, one of the highest among all elements.
- Sulfur (S): A non-metal with a moderate melting point, higher than that of potassium.
Melting Point Comparison
- Helium: Melting point at around -272.2°C (-458°F). Helium remains a liquid even at absolute zero and only solidifies under extremely high pressures.
- Potassium: Melting point at about 63.5°C (146.3°F). As an alkali metal, it has a relatively low melting point but is considerably higher than helium.
- Tungsten: Melting point at approximately 3422°C (6192°F). Its high melting point makes it suitable for high-temperature applications.
- Sulfur: Melting point ranges from 115°C to 120°C (239°F to 248°F). It is much higher than helium and potassium.
Conclusion
Given the above comparisons, helium stands out as the element with the lowest melting point. Its unique properties as a noble gas contribute to its inability to solidify under normal conditions, making it a fascinating subject of study in thermodynamics and material science.
The melting point of a substance is the temperature at which it transitions from solid to liquid. This property varies widely among different elements and is influenced by atomic structure and bonding.
Elements in Question
- Helium (He): A noble gas with a very low atomic mass and weak interatomic forces.
- Potassium (K): An alkali metal, relatively low melting point compared to many metals but higher than helium.
- Tungsten (W): A transition metal known for its high melting point, one of the highest among all elements.
- Sulfur (S): A non-metal with a moderate melting point, higher than that of potassium.
Melting Point Comparison
- Helium: Melting point at around -272.2°C (-458°F). Helium remains a liquid even at absolute zero and only solidifies under extremely high pressures.
- Potassium: Melting point at about 63.5°C (146.3°F). As an alkali metal, it has a relatively low melting point but is considerably higher than helium.
- Tungsten: Melting point at approximately 3422°C (6192°F). Its high melting point makes it suitable for high-temperature applications.
- Sulfur: Melting point ranges from 115°C to 120°C (239°F to 248°F). It is much higher than helium and potassium.
Conclusion
Given the above comparisons, helium stands out as the element with the lowest melting point. Its unique properties as a noble gas contribute to its inability to solidify under normal conditions, making it a fascinating subject of study in thermodynamics and material science.
Select the related numbers from the given alternatives :
35 : 48 :: 110 : ?- a)18
- b)132
- c)136
- d)140
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Select the related numbers from the given alternatives :
35 : 48 :: 110 : ?
35 : 48 :: 110 : ?
a)
18
b)
132
c)
136
d)
140
|
|
Prashanth Mehra answered |
In 35 : 48
7 × 5 = 35
8 × 6 = 48
Similarly;
11 × 10 = 110
12 × 11 = 132
Hence, 132 is correct option.
In question select the related numbers from the given alternatives.76 : 01 :: 42 : ?- a)02
- b)05
- c)01
- d)04
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
In question select the related numbers from the given alternatives.
76 : 01 :: 42 : ?
a)
02
b)
05
c)
01
d)
04
|
|
Lekshmi Rane answered |
The difference between the first two digits gives the second number.
For example, 7 – 6 = 1.
Similarly, 4 – 2 = 2.
Therefore, the final pairing will be 76 : 01 ∷ 42 : 2.
Find the odd word from the given alternatives.- a)Square
- b)Sphere
- c)Rectangle
- d)Circle
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Find the odd word from the given alternatives.
a)
Square
b)
Sphere
c)
Rectangle
d)
Circle
|
|
Divya Mehta answered |
Square, Rectangle and Circle are 2-dimensional figures while Sphere is a 3-dimensional figure.
Which of the following is a synthetic polymer?a. Nylonb. Polyethylenec. Teflond. Cellulosee. Silk- a)Only b, c and d
- b)Only a, b and d
- c)Only b, c and e
- d)Only a, b and c
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following is a synthetic polymer?
a. Nylon
b. Polyethylene
c. Teflon
d. Cellulose
e. Silk
a)
Only b, c and d
b)
Only a, b and d
c)
Only b, c and e
d)
Only a, b and c
|
Nayanika Yadav answered |
Examples of synthetic polymers include nylon, polyethylene, polyester, Teflon, and epoxy. Natural polymers occur in nature and can be extracted. They are often water-based. Examples of naturally occurring polymers are silk, wool, DNA, cellulose, starch and proteins.
Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary.1. Counter2. Crop3. Create4. Carnation5. Creator- a)41352
- b)41253
- c)43125
- d)41325
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary.
1. Counter
2. Crop
3. Create
4. Carnation
5. Creator
a)
41352
b)
41253
c)
43125
d)
41325
|
|
Prashanth Mehra answered |
4. Carnation
1. Counter
3. Create
5. Creator
2. Crop
Hence, correct dictionary order is 41352.
If ANTIQUES is coded as DQWLTXHV, then how will FOX be coded as?- a)IRA
- b)IKM
- c)KLP
- d)SDC
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
If ANTIQUES is coded as DQWLTXHV, then how will FOX be coded as?
a)
IRA
b)
IKM
c)
KLP
d)
SDC
|
|
Prerna Menon answered |
ANTIQUES is coded as DQWLTXHV
⇒ A + 3 = D
⇒ N + 3 = Q
⇒ T + 3 = W
⇒ I + 3 = L
⇒ Q + 3 = T
⇒ U + 3 = X
⇒ E + 3 = H
⇒ S + 3 = V
Similarly,
⇒ F + 3 = I
⇒ O + 3 = R
⇒ X + 3 = A
Hence, in this language “FOX” will be coded as “ IRA”.
Arrange the following in dictionary order. Then which will be the second word?1) Specific2) Spectacle3) Specified4) Spectacular- a)2
- b)3
- c)4
- d)1
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Arrange the following in dictionary order. Then which will be the second word?
1) Specific
2) Spectacle
3) Specified
4) Spectacular
a)
2
b)
3
c)
4
d)
1
|
|
Sravya Tiwari answered |
In dictionary order, words are put in alphabetically according to the first letter in which they differ.
Thus, the order will be:
Specific (1), Specified (3), Spectacle (2), Spectacular (4)
Prime Minister of India is de-facto head of which of the following bodies?I. NITI AayogII. National Integration CouncilIII. Indian Board of Wildlife- a)Only I
- b)Only II
- c)Both II and III
- d)All I, II and III
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Prime Minister of India is de-facto head of which of the following bodies?
I. NITI Aayog
II. National Integration Council
III. Indian Board of Wildlife
a)
Only I
b)
Only II
c)
Both II and III
d)
All I, II and III
|
|
Shreya Choudhury answered |
- Prime Minister is the de-facto head of all three bodies.
- NITI Aayog was formed by a cabinet resolution by replacing Planning commission. Its role is to foster involvement and participation in the economic policymaking process by the State Governments.
- The National Integration Council (NIC) is a group of senior politicians and public figures that look for ways to address the problems of communalism, casteism, and regionalism.
- Indian Board for Wild Life is a “Statutory Organisation” constituted under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 to advise on framing policies and measures for conservation of wildlife.
Chapter doubts & questions for Sectional Test - SSC JE Mechanical Mock Test Series 2026 2025 is part of Mechanical Engineering exam preparation. The chapters have been prepared according to the Mechanical Engineering exam syllabus. The Chapter doubts & questions, notes, tests & MCQs are made for Mechanical Engineering 2025 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests here.
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SSC JE Mechanical Mock Test Series 2026
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